God's Name Found in the Greek Scriptures under θεόν (theon).
Comments
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Since these cases are interchangeable as you claim to be making, you can easily show an example of the Accusative: Theon - Θεόν is applied to Jesus Christ.
Theon - Θεόν is NEVER applied to Jesus Christ in the Bible, not one single verse ever, nothing, nada, doesn't exist. So are you now a denier of Jesus Christ, all of a sudden the words of Christ are meaningless? I think not... but let's see your proof of claim that Jesus is called (Θεόν) - not going to happen in this lifetime or the next. I got time.
Make your case... I'm showing what Greek Scholars refuse to admit. That (theos) can be rendered in the feminine sense (a god).
Strong's Concordance
theos: God, a god
Original Word: θεός, οῦ, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: theos
Phonetic Spelling: (theh'-os)
Definition: God, a god
Usage: (a) God, (b) a god, generally.
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"I'm showing what Greek Scholars refuse to admit. That (theos) can be rendered in the feminine sense (a god)."
Can you give a modern day example of "feminine sense" being used as you mean? Because, as I am understanding the above you seem to be equating this "feminine sense" to when θεός is anarthrous only. So, are you meaning that any masculine noun sans article is somehow considered to be in this grammatical "feminine sense"?
In looking over some of your other comments that would seem to be heading in the right direction of your intended meaning.
"Simply by with-holding the definite article (ho) which the Apostle John did in John 1:1 leaves Θεός in its natural state of being a nominative feminine noun (a god)"
Although, the last portion of your statement, "its natural state of being a nominative feminine noun", one would under normal conditions grammatically take that as referring to the noun's gender.
Having asked this prior, how do you define "natural state"? By the above statement it would seem as if you consider "natural state" as an anarthrous nominative noun; and, that lack of article changes an otherwise masculine noun into a feminine noun. Would that be correct?
If so, I have to ask if this same grammatical condition also then applies conversely to an anarthrous nominative feminine noun. Does this condition put that feminine noun into a natural state i.e. nominative masculine so that it will have a masculine sense?
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@Keep_Smiling_4_Jesus
Christ"Simply by with-holding the definite article (ho) which the Apostle John did in John 1:1 leaves Θεός in its natural state of being a nominative feminine noun (a god)"
Although, the last portion of your statement, "its natural state of being a nominative feminine noun", one would under normal conditions grammatically take that as referring to the noun's gender.
No... only pagans do that! GENDER is not part of the Discussion here. You are being dishonest in inserting it.
Strong's Concordance
theos: God, a god
Original Word: θεός, οῦ, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: theos
Phonetic Spelling: (theh'-os)
Definition: God, a god
Usage: (a) God, (b) a god, generally.
You're simply a liar. nominative Noun, Feminine; feminine sense" (a god) refers to deity, divinity, divine nature and the Word godlike qualities.
Feminine genders is not included anyway here in the definition, You are Simply Lying. Otherwise, if it was goddess would be demonic teaching here,
Beginning is not a Feminine Person - In the Beginning was the WORD" Arche' word -Beginning Messenger -Chief Messenger -Archangel - Michael godlike or who is like God?
Strong's Concordance
arché: beginning, origin
Original Word: ἀρχή, ῆς, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: arché
Phonetic Spelling: (ar-khay')
Definition: beginning, origin
Usage: (a) rule (kingly or magisterial), (b) plur: in a quasi-personal sense, almost: rulers, magistrates, (c) beginning.
Beginning is not a FEMALE but it describes Jesus Christ divine and godlike qualities and the Beginning of him Being Firstborn over ALL CREATION!
The trinitarians have no leg to stand on at all. So my point is that trinitarians will raise false flags. The point is this:
In the First instance of God in John the Greek word for God is Θεόν a term that never refers to Jesus. To make this as simple as possible, this proves to trinitarians that they are not the same-same nor co-equal or co-existent. Will they believe it? NOPE. They are engulfed by wicked spirits, so reasoning with them is nearly impossible. You are already thinking like them of which you are going right along with them. The (whom and what) is already given in the understanding the Greek of which you cannot SEE. For at least at this time... but the closer we get to the conclusion of the last days the demons from here on out will simply become more fierce and active until they are abyssed.
Now, if Θεόν (Theon) is just a conjugation of the word Θεός (Theos) then it would not exist at all. There would be no need. Obvious for those who look up the Greek in this matter can SEE that Θεόν simply doesn't exist in John 1:1c nor is the Holy Spirit called by the Greek title Θεόν (Theon). Like the trinity, it simply does not exist in Jehovah's Word.
I have no need to persuade those who are my brothers or sisters. Only those whom are lost or not of the fold and it takes so much effort. Scripture that gives insight to the right hearted is listed below.
- In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God τὸν Θεόν, and the Word was a god Θεός .
Since the feminine noun of theos was invoked by with-holding the definite article (ho) by the Apostle John, a god can also be rendered godlike as in John 1 of the third clause and who is like God?
Take Care.
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"No... only pagans do that! GENDER is not part of the Discussion here. You are being dishonest in inserting it."
"Beginning is not a Feminine Person" and "Beginning is not a FEMALE"
There are three gender classifications for nouns in the Greek language, masculine, feminine, or neuter. These classifications are known as grammatical gender.
So, when you speak of masculine or feminine nouns that is in fact speaking of the grammatical gender for those nouns – not natural gender; though, there are instances where the grammatical and natural gender for a noun will happen to correspond.
Gender information is included in a noun's morphology that you are no doubt very familiar with – noun masc. sing. nom. – noun fem. sing. gen. – and, noun neut. plur. nom. – etc.
I want to provide again this definition regarding gender in the Greek language before continuing.
- Gender is a grammatical category: masculine, feminine, or neuter. Words do not possess sex; they are characterized by gender. The genders are simply groups of words that use the same inflectional endings—linguistic classifications, not biological ones.
- The category of gender tells us which endings to use on nouns and how to spell other words (such as adjectives) that are related to them. (emphasis mine)
(Decker, Rodney J. Reading Koine Greek. Accordance electronic edition, version 2.0. Grand Rapids: Baker Academic, 2014.)
I'm hopeful the above will clear up the apparent misconception you face on grammatical gender as was expressed in this statement, "Beginning is not a FEMALE".
"You're simply a liar. nominative Noun, Feminine; feminine sense" (a god) refers to deity, divinity, divine nature"
"Feminine genders is not included anyway here in the definition, You are Simply Lying. Otherwise, if it was goddess would be demonic teaching here,"
"Since the feminine noun of theos was invoked by with-holding the definite article (ho) by the Apostle John"
And, the following from one of your previous postings in this thread.
"Simply by with-holding the definite article (ho) which the Apostle John did in John 1:1 leaves Θεός in its natural state of being a nominative feminine noun (a god)"
And, including this as well.
Strong's Concordance
theos: God, a god
Original Word: θεός, οῦ, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: theos
Phonetic Spelling: (theh'-os)
Definition: God, a god
Usage: (a) God, (b) a god, generally. (bold yours)
It would seem that this familiar Concordance entry from biblehub.com is one basis for the contrived rule of your own making. A rule that conceives the anarthrous masculine θεός as being a feminine noun without having feminine gender, something you call "feminine sense".
The second basis involved here seems to be that an anarthrous θεός is in your mind always to be taken in this "feminine sense" as "a god" according to this statement, "nominative Noun, Feminine; feminine sense" (a god) refers to deity, divinity, divine nature".
It is unfortunate that you have misunderstood and misapplied what "Part of Speech" in Strong's conveys. It conveys the information that θεός is a noun and can be either masculine or feminine in grammatical gender. The masculine θεός can refer to God or a god regardless of articular status (examples are several paragraphs below).
θεός is a second declension noun which means both masculine and feminine forms have the same case endings in the nominative, genitive, accusative, dative, and vocative.
Therefore, if I write θεός or ὁ θεός both are masculine singular nominative in grammatical gender. If I write ἡ θεός it is feminine singular nominative in grammatical gender; or, I could also write θήλεια θεός to identify θεός as being female (cf. Acts 19:37 τὴν θεὸν).
By the above you probably recognize that with θεός the grammatical and natural genders happen to correspond with one another; which, does seem to follow throughout use.
- There are a number of Greek nouns which may take masculine or feminine gender, depending upon whether the item referred to is male or female: θεός, παῖς, ὄνος, ἄρκτος.
(Porter, S. E. (1999). Idioms of the Greek New Testament (p. 101). JSOT.)
Before moving forward, I want to re-emphasize that both "masculine" and "feminine" in the Strong's Concordance "Part of Speech" are referring to only word gender (see definition above) – a feminine noun is feminine grammatical gender.
I have yet to come across anything that corroborates your theoretical idea of "a god" having "feminine sense". In fact, once again scripture itself is not your friend in this matter; which, is easily demonstrated in the following.
A quick confirmation of this using the LXX is found in Ge. 17:7 εἶναί σου θεὸς and Ge. 17:8 ἔσομαι αὐτοῖς θεός. In the same way the NT also provides examples; one such, being Lk. 20:38 θεὸς δὲ οὐκ ἔστιν.
There are more examples but the above will suffice in showing that not all instances of θεός in the Greek text have the masculine singular nominative ὁ even when the text is speaking of Yahweh.
However, according to your stipulated view of noun and article relationship this "with-holding" of the article, as you state it, would have θεός in a "feminine sense" as some ordinary deity having a divine nature – a god. Yet, it is Yahweh, Himself, that is in view in those example texts.
Now, the reverse of those previous examples can also be found in the NT text as well. And that is where ὁ θεός is nothing more than a common deity – a god. Phil. 3:19 ὧν ὁ θεὸς ἡ κοιλία, and 2Cor. 4:4 ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος.
I want to point out that in the above two NT examples θεός is masculine, not feminine, contra your claim regarding the gender used when speaking of a false god, "...it's natural state is a feminine noun, NOT necessarily a feminine gender unless it is being directed towards false gods.". Out of the more than 1300 instances of θεός in the NT only one is feminine.
It's worth asking at this time if there is a "feminine sense" counterpart rule in place that you observe which applies to when ὁ θεὸς is "a god"?
In my opinion your contrived rule has struck out.
And, as far as those asserted claims of yours having any applicable merit for θεός being "a god" in Jn. 1:1, is non-existent.
For one, all of the discussion above has shown your premise of "feminine sense" in all its aspects to be in error.
For another, the issue of consistency in application plagues your position. Within the first eighteen verses of John there are six anarthrous uses of θεός (Jn. 1:1, 6, 12-13, 18). Now, two (1:1 and 1:18) of those six instances you apply your rule; yet, the other four you do not do so.
There are additionally several hundred instances of the anarthrous masculine singular θεός in the NT; and, according to your universal rule, all anarthrous θεός occurrences should then be considered in a "feminine sense" as a god, or a divine divinity – something less than Yahweh.
The previous LXX and NT examples I provided clearly show beyond a doubt that your overall rule governing the anarthrous θεός is in error – certainly when Yahweh is in the context.
"Now, if Θεόν (Theon) is just a conjugation of the word Θεός (Theos) then it would not exist at all."
This statement makes absolutely no sense at all; and, upon what it is based, is anyone's guess.
But certainly a disconnect is occurring with the understanding of noun declension, i.e. inflections – θεός, θεοῦ, θεόν, θεῷ, θεέ – and why in the Greek language that is a necessary component of grammar to make sense out of what is being communicated.
It would be good if you kept in mind what the inflected noun cases actually accomplish in Greek.
- Cases (nominative, vocative, accusative, genitive, and dative) identify how the noun or adjective functions grammatically within a sentence. (emphasis mine)
(Schwandt, J. D. p.30)
- These changes in forms do not impact the actual meaning of the noun itself, only how it is being used in a particular sentence. (emphasis mine)
(White, James R.).
Just a quick mention regarding declension and conjugation.
- Declension is the inflection of substantives, adjectives (including participles), and pronouns; conjugation is the inflection of verbs. (emphasis mine)
(Smyth, H. W. (1920). A Greek Grammar for Colleges (p. 44). American Book Company.)
"Obvious for those who look up the Greek in this matter can SEE that Θεόν simply doesn't exist in John 1:1c"
Well, obviously I have to ask, who, specifically, has argued that the accusative form of θεός is written in the third clause of Jn. 1:1?
θεός is grammatically functioning as a predicate nominative in the clause. If it were functioning as an object then θεός would be written as θεόν – as it is in the second clause.
Interesting side-trip. But, it is time to get back to our main area of discussion.
And that is:
1). In scripture θεόν most usually finds its referent in Yahweh.
2). 146, not 148, NT occurrences of θεόν find Yahweh as the referent.
3). Within scripture θεόν does not find Jesus as its referent.
4). θεόν does find Jesus as a referent in early writings outside scripture.
I am assuming by the change in focus over the last couple of posts that you have conceded to the four points above and can consider that exchange as completed.
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No matter how hard you try... Gender is a person of which is not part of the discussion of which you cowardly inserted to claim Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess. Rather feminine nouns points to the deity of Christ of which you have already denied.
Feminine nouns - referring to Jesus Christ divinity
"In the Beginning was the Word"
Strong's Concordance
arché: beginning, origin
Original Word: ἀρχή, ῆς, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: arché
Phonetic Spelling: (ar-khay')
Definition: beginning, origin
Usage: (a) rule (kingly or magisterial), (b) plur: in a quasi-personal sense, almost: rulers, magistrates, (c) beginning.
HELPS Word-studies
746 arxḗ – properly, from the beginning (temporal sense), i.e. "the initial (starting) point"; (figuratively) what comes first and therefore is chief (foremost), i.e. has the priority because ahead of the rest ("preeminent").
Your claim is that the Word is God - No.... the Word is not τὸν Θεόν but rather θεός which means a god.
Strong's Concordance
theos: God, a god
Original Word: θεός, οῦ, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: theos
Phonetic Spelling: (theh'-os)
Definition: God, a god
Usage: (a) God, (b) a god, generally.
Jesus is Firstborn of All Creation
Strong's Concordance
ktisis: creation (the act or the product)
Original Word: κτίσις, εως, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: ktisis
Phonetic Spelling: (ktis'-is)
Definition: creation (the act or the product)
Usage: (often of the founding of a city), (a) abstr: creation, (b) concr: creation, creature, institution; always of Divine work, (c) an institution, ordinance.
Christ is the Wisdom of God (1 Cor 1:24)
Strong's Concordance
sophia: skill, wisdom
Original Word: σοφία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: sophia
Phonetic Spelling: (sof-ee'-ah)
Definition: skill, wisdom
Usage: wisdom, insight, skill (human or divine), intelligence.
Trinitarians claim to believe in Grace until they find out that it is a feminine noun describing Christs' divinity
Strong's Concordance
charis: grace, kindness
Original Word: χάρις, ιτος, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: charis
Phonetic Spelling: (khar'-ece)
Definition: grace, kindness
Usage: (a) grace, as a gift or blessing brought to man by Jesus Christ, (b) favor, (c) gratitude, thanks, (d) a favor, kindness.
Jesus Christ Personifies Wisdom and Grace ---- but trinitarians reject both wisdom and grace...
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"Gender is a person of which is not part of the discussion"
We are speaking actually of grammatical gender (masculine, feminine, neuter) as it applies to nouns in the Greek language; not gender as in the possession of sex differentiation (masculine, feminine).
For grammatical gender not being "part of the discussion" you certainly place a great amount of emphasis on it with the many references to "feminine nouns" and the "feminine sense" throughout your posts in this forum.
"Feminine nouns"
"until they find out that it is a feminine noun"
1st declension nouns are primarily feminine in grammatical gender while 2nd declension nouns are primarily masculine grammatical gender. The case-endings for the latter are the same for both masculine and feminine nouns.
A Greek noun's gender is known as grammatical gender; which, may, or may not, correspond with natural gender. In the particular case we are engaged on however the natural and the grammatical gender of θεός does coincide in use.
θεός is a 2nd declension noun; so, if I write θεός it will be taken as masculine. Were I to want it to reflect a female god, or goddess, I will use the feminine article that agrees with the noun – ἡ θεός, or τὴν θεὸν (Acts 19:37). Or, another approach is to use a term modifying θεός, such as θήλεια, distinguishing θεός as female.
There is no "feminine sense" involved here. Either θεός is used as a masculine noun; or, it is used as a feminine noun determined by an article or some modifier (θήλεια). It is not by the lack of an article that θεός becomes a feminine noun as you believe and assert.
Let me refresh your memory for a moment and ask, what do you not comprehend in the following citations regarding Greek noun gender?
- 1. Gender is a grammatical category: masculine, feminine, or neuter.
- 2. Words do not possess sex; they are characterized by gender.
- 3. The genders are simply groups of words that use the same inflectional endings—linguistic classifications, not biological ones.
(Decker, Rodney J. Reading Koine Greek. Accordance electronic edition, version 2.0. Grand Rapids: Baker Academic, 2014.)
- grammatical gender. n. The designation of the gender of words—whether masculine, feminine or neuter—not based on whether the objects in question are truly male or female (called natural gender) but solely based on grammatical usage.
(DeMoss, M. S. (2001). Pocket dictionary for the study of New Testament Greek (p. 64). InterVarsity Press.)
- The gender of Greek words is usually indicated by means of the article: ὁ for masculine, ἡ for feminine, τό for neuter.
(Smyth, H. W. (1920). A Greek Grammar for Colleges (p. 45). American Book Company.)
- There are a number of Greek nouns which may take masculine or feminine gender, depending upon whether the item referred to is male or female: θεός, παῖς, ὄνος, ἄρκτος.
(Porter, S. E. (1999). Idioms of the Greek New Testament (p. 101). JSOT.)
- Common Gender.—Many nouns denoting persons are either masculine or feminine. Thus, ὁ παῖς boy, ἡ παῖς girl, ὁ θεός god, ἡ θεός (ἡ θεᾱ́ poet.) goddess. So with names of animals; ὁ βοῦς ox, ἡ βοῦς cow, ὁ ἵππος horse, ἡ ἵππος mare.
(Smyth, H. W. (1920). A Greek Grammar for Colleges (p. 46). American Book Company.)
All the above is quite contrary to your expressed view where you speculate that the "with-holding" of an article for the masculine θεός will "invoke" the "feminine noun" θεός giving a "feminine sense" to it; which, is to be translated "a god".
That position of yours was easily demonstrated to be false with just a small sampling of texts where the anarthrous θεός was Yahweh Himself; while, other texts used ὁ θεὸς which referred to a common deity, "a god".
Not only do you not have the support of scripture for this position you hold; but, you do not have support from grammars of the Greek language. And no, Strong's Concordance, which you misinterpret, is not a Greek grammar.
"which you cowardly inserted to claim Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess"
On the contrary, and not at all. When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender.
Where exactly did I write that Jesus is a goddess? Where is the quote to support "Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess"?
I recommend re-reading my previous post.
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@Pages On the contrary, and not at all. When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender.
Where exactly did I write that Jesus is a goddess? Where is the quote to support "Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess"?
When you stated "@Pages On the contrary, and not at all. When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender."
Feminine nouns refer to a qualitive sense in the manner of being begotten as birth labor pains. When I mentioned deity of Christ as to His qualitive sense you introduce word gender. You can engage in a "divine nature" but there are no Male or Females in Heaven. Being that he was in God's Form is that he was also a Spirit Creature part of Creation. FIRSTBORN of ALL CREATION--- another feminine noun describing his qualitive sense.
- God's Form (ie... godlike or who is like God?)
Strong's Concordance
morphé: form, shape
Original Word: μορφή, ῆς, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: morphé
Phonetic Spelling: (mor-fay')
Definition: form, shape
Usage: form, shape, outward appearance.
HELPS Word-studies
3444 morphḗ – properly, form (outward expression) that embodies essential (inner) substance so that the form is in complete harmony with the inner essence.
Strong's Concordance
doxa: opinion (always good in N.T.), hence praise, honor, glory
Original Word: δόξα, ης, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: doxa
Phonetic Spelling: (dox'-ah)
Definition: opinion (always good in NT), praise, honor, glory
Usage: honor, renown; glory, an especially divine quality, the unspoken manifestation of God, splendor.
The Father nor the Son are FEMALES!
- In the image of God (ie... godlike or who is like God?
HELPS Word-studies
1504 eikṓn (from 1503 /eíkō, "be like") – properly, "mirror-like representation," referring to what is very close in resemblance
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In my last post I asked you where it was that I wrote what you asserted. You have asserted that I claimed, in your words, "Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess".
I am again asking you to provide the quotation having those words. I did not ask you for what you inferred from what I wrote; but, the actual words stating "Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess".
Instead, you answered with the following:
"When you stated"
- On the contrary, and not at all. When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender. (my words you quoted)
Where in that sentence is it stated that I consider Jesus as a goddess; or, more directly, and in your words, "Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess"? Where are those words?
In that statement I simply said that when you write "feminine noun" that phrase is denoting word (grammatical) gender – feminine modifies noun as to the grammatical gender the noun is – which may, or may not, coincide with natural gender.
"Feminine nouns refer to a qualitive sense in the manner of being begotten as birth labor pains."
Provide citations from Greek grammars where this "qualitive [sic] sense in the manner of being begotten as birth labor pains" is discussed for feminine nouns. As a note, Strong's is not a Greek grammar. You do know the difference between a Concordance and a grammar don't you?
"When I mentioned deity of Christ as to His qualitive sense you introduce word gender."
By "qualitive [sic]" I believe you meant to write "qualitative" because to my knowledge your "qualitive [sic]" is not a dictionary word.
It was not until this very last post of yours that "qualitive [sic]" or "qualitative" entered into our discussion in this thread. In light of that, how do you write as if you have mentioned "qualitative sense" in our exchange on this particular thread?
Having used the forum search function for qualitive [sic] or qualitative it confirms the first and only mention of this term in this thread was indeed in your very last posting.
"but there are no Male or Females in Heaven."
On what basis does this moving to a heavenly scene referencing natural gender have to do with the grammatical gender category of nouns in Greek grammar?
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@Pages On the contrary, and not at all. When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender.
Where exactly did I write that Jesus is a goddess? Where is the quote to support "Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess"?
When you stated "@Pages On the contrary, and not at all. When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender."
Feminine nouns refer to a qualitative sense in the manner of being begotten. When I mentioned deity of Christ as to His qualitive sense you introduce word gender. You can engage in a "divine nature" but there are no Male or Females in Heaven. Being that he was in God's Form is that he was also a Spirit Creature part of Creation. FIRSTBORN of ALL CREATION--- another feminine noun describing his qualitative sense.
- God's Form (ie... godlike or who is like God?)
Strong's Concordance
morphé: form, shape
Original Word: μορφή, ῆς, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: morphé
Phonetic Spelling: (mor-fay')
Definition: form, shape
Usage: form, shape, outward appearance.
HELPS Word-studies
3444 morphḗ – properly, form (outward expression) that embodies essential (inner) substance so that the form is in complete harmony with the inner essence.
Strong's Concordance
doxa: opinion (always good in N.T.), hence praise, honor, glory
Original Word: δόξα, ης, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: doxa
Phonetic Spelling: (dox'-ah)
Definition: opinion (always good in NT), praise, honor, glory
Usage: honor, renown; glory, an especially divine quality, the unspoken manifestation of God, splendor.
The Father nor the Son are FEMALES!
- In the image of God (ie... godlike or who is like God?
HELPS Word-studies
1504 eikṓn (from 1503 /eíkō, "be like") – properly, "mirror-like representation," referring to what is very close in resemblance
Here's another Godhead
The trinitarian teaching that the three female gods (godesses) is simple a trinity error of three created voices make up God.
C Mc Posts: 4,463
The Deity of Jesus is the center of all New Testament theology (or theologies). Why? Because "Jesus is God." It's in plain sight from Genesis to Revelation. Jesus is Co-equal, Co-creator, and Co-eternal with the Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit. There is no hiding, no shame.
No such teaching in the Bible... trinitarians are not in agreement from one another.. That's polytheism
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Since you cannot provide a quote in which I explicitly stated Jesus is a goddess; or, as you put it, "some sort of pagan goddess", there is no justification for your assertion that I did so.
There is no explicit mention of Jesus being a goddess, let alone, any mention of his person in my statement found below.
- When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender.
That the conclusion you arrived at from the above statement was "Jesus is some sort of pagan goddess" demonstrates two things.
One, that you do understand natural gender as witnessed also by these statements below.
"Gender is a person of which is not part of the discussion"
"Beginning is not a Feminine Person" and "Beginning is not a FEMALE".
"Feminine genders is not included anyway here in the definition... Otherwise, if it was goddess would be demonic teaching here,"
Two, you do recognize Greek grammatical gender with the use of your "feminine noun" and what seems to equate with it "feminine sense" – the terminology you employ to describe "feminine noun".
However, from your "Gender is a person" remark alone I would say that you are importing an English grammar mindset (natural gender) onto the Greek; while, attempting to mix in grammatical gender of the language.
- grammatical gender. n. The designation of the gender of words—whether masculine, feminine or neuter—not based on whether the objects in question are truly male or female (called natural gender) but solely based on grammatical usage.
(DeMoss, M. S. (2001). Pocket dictionary for the study of New Testament Greek (p. 64). InterVarsity Press.)
Within the Greek language a noun will have gender (grammatical) which may, or may not, correspond to natural gender for that particular noun.
As it can be understood, your particular position of "feminine noun" "feminine sense" system of grammar in relation to θεός is one that simply does not work as you have devised it.
What you seem to want is for the masculine (grammatical and natural gender) θεός to be masculine natural gender taking the feminine grammatical gender ("feminine noun" having "feminine sense").
A couple of obstacles for the position you are grammatically wanting for θεός are found in the following.
- Common Gender.—Many nouns denoting persons are either masculine or feminine. Thus, ὁ παῖς boy, ἡ παῖς girl, ὁ θεός god, ἡ θεός (ἡ θεᾱ́ poet.) goddess. So with names of animals; ὁ βοῦς ox, ἡ βοῦς cow, ὁ ἵππος horse, ἡ ἵππος mare.
(Smyth, H. W. (1920). A Greek Grammar for Colleges (p. 46). American Book Company.)
- There are a number of Greek nouns which may take masculine or feminine gender, depending upon whether the item referred to is male or female: θεός, παῖς, ὄνος, ἄρκτος.
(Porter, S. E. (1999). Idioms of the Greek New Testament (p. 101). JSOT.)
θεός, a common noun, takes masculine or feminine grammatical gender. But θεός is also a 2nd declension noun meaning in part that the declined forms (nominative, genitive, accusative, dative, vocative) are identical in case endings for both masculine and feminine.
This means for the nominative singular masculine θεός to take feminine grammatical gender, "feminine noun" having "feminine sense", and understood as such, will necessitate the use of a nominative singular feminine article ἡ – ἡ θεός.
In other words, grammatical gender (masc. or fem.) will follow natural gender (masc. or fem.) for the word θεός as it does in Acts. 19:37 (τὴν θεὸν).
As stated above, the feminine article is necessary to distinguish θεός as having taken feminine grammatical gender; or, as previously stated a modifying term could be used instead, i.e., θήλεια θεός.
The LXX and NT combined have more than 5000 occurrences of θεός (articular or anarthrous), and all are masculine but for the one feminine instance in Acts 19:37.
"Since the feminine noun of theos was invoked by with-holding the definite article (ho) by the Apostle John",
Hopefully, you will not turn back to this unsupported claim again as it was shown to be completely in error by several examples where the anarthrous θεός is Yahweh (Ge. 17:7-8 LXX; and Lk. 20:38). And, also in the reverse examples where ὁ θεὸς is not Yahweh (Phil. 3:19; 2Cor. 4:4).
- 1. θεός and κύριος
- Since these words come near to being proper nouns in NT, it is not surprising that the art. is so often omitted.
(Moulton, J. H., & Turner, N. (1963–). A grammar of New Testament Greek: Syntax. (Vol. 3, p. 174). T. & T. Clark.)
- The word θεός, like a proper name, is freely used with and without the article.
(Robertson, A. T. (2006). A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (p. 795). Logos Bible Software.)
Moreover, there is to my knowledge no discussion within a grammar stating that a masculine noun becomes feminine (grammatical) due to being anarthrous.
So, it should be clear by now that the word θεός takes feminine grammatical gender, your "feminine noun" having "feminine sense", when θεός has the agreeing feminine article.
I believe you will need to reconsider your position in full.
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@Pages Since you cannot provide a quote in which I explicitly stated Jesus is a goddess; or, as you put it, "some sort of pagan goddess", there is no justification for your assertion that I did so.
There is no explicit mention of Jesus being a goddess, let alone, any mention of his person in my statement found below.
@Brother Rando There is when you try to change the feminine noun FROM feminine sense to FEMININE GENDER as YOU HAVE DONE
@Pages When you state in your writing "feminine noun" that is a linguistic category of word gender.
@Brother Rando The feminine noun (beginning) in first clause of the introduction of John is referring to the Word. The Word is the Beginning of CREATION (Col 1:15) therefore, the feminine noun (creation) is explaining that the Word is FIRSTBORN of ALL CREATION.
Wisdom is another feminine noun that points to the Word being CREATED before anything else. (Proverbs 8:22) Not that he is a goddess but was BROUGHT FORTH - BEGOTTEN - MADE - CREATED - as with labor pangs. (Proverbs 8:24) and (Proverbs 8:25)
Wisdom is the One speaking in Proverbs 8 and says "I was beside him, a master workman," which throws trinitarians into confusion, because the male gender is inserted here.
So your twisting of the Greek Grammar is faulty when you claim τὸν Θεόν is the same as all the Greek cases for God - They are not -- I already know that Greek Scholars do not differentiate between the Greek Cases. But it that was true, there would be no need in using different Greek cases as In the introduction of John. That's why they latter state all cases are the same--- they are not.
- In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God (τὸν Θεόν), and the Word was a god (Θεὸς).
I never expected you to understand the Word's of Jesus Christ because trinitarians are CHRIST DENIERS. It's a Battle you have already LOST in denying CHRIST.
- The FATHER is GREATER than I am
- You, the only true God (τὸν Θεόν),
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"There is when you try to change the feminine noun FROM feminine sense to FEMININE GENDER as YOU HAVE DONE"
By using feminine noun you are explicitly expressing a grammatical word gender in the language we are discussing.
"The feminine noun (beginning)"
"Wisdom is another feminine noun"
You have just given examples of feminine grammatical gender in the Greek language.
- The noun in Greek has gender, number, and case.
- There are three genders: masculine, feminine, and neuter.
(Machen, J. G. (1924). New Testament Greek for Beginners (p. 23). The Macmillan Company.)
"when you claim τὸν Θεόν is the same as all the Greek cases for God - They are not -- I already know that Greek Scholars do not differentiate between the Greek Cases."
There is no change in meaning for a noun due to its inflection.
What the declined case-ending will identify for us is the grammatical function a noun is performing within a given discourse – is it performing as a subject, or an object, or an indirect object, etc., and whether it is singular or plural – that all becomes known by the form of the noun used.
And, if you're wondering what those endings for θεός are:
Singular – ος (nominative), ου (genitive), ῳ (dative), ον (accusative).
Plural – οι (nominative), ων (genitive), οις (dative), ους (accusative).
"But it that was true, there would be no need in using different Greek cases as In the introduction of John. That's why they latter state all cases are the same--- they are not."
See response above.
You say, "it [sic] that was true, no need in using different Greek cases as In the introduction of John.", which underscores the lack of comprehension for how the language functions. And from that follows the unfortunate misguided effort to represent the language as saying something it is not in any given passage.
In direct response to your above reference to the prologue of John's gospel:
θεόν in clause two of Jn. 1:1 is the object of the preposition πρὸς so the accusative form is used. Also Jn. 1:2.
θεὸς in clause three of Jn. 1:1 on the other hand is a predicate nominative so it must be in the nominative form.
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@Pages θεὸς in clause three of Jn. 1:1 on the other hand is a predicate nominative so it must be in the nominative form.
@Brother Rando θεὸς in clause three is a feminine nominative noun which invokes a feminine sense of divine qualitative of Being FIRSTBORN.
Strong's Concordance
theos: God, a god
Original Word: θεός, οῦ, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: theos
Phonetic Spelling: (theh'-os)
Definition: God, a god
Usage: (a) God, (b) a god, generally.
The Word whom Jehovah made, created, brought forth, begotten, is the Beginning of Creation.
Beginning.
Strong's Concordance
arché: beginning, origin
Original Word: ἀρχή, ῆς, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: arché
Phonetic Spelling: (ar-khay')
Definition: beginning, origin
Usage: (a) rule (kingly or magisterial), (b) plur: in a quasi-personal sense, almost: rulers, magistrates, (c) beginning.
HELPS Word-studies
746 arxḗ – properly, from the beginning (temporal sense), i.e. "the initial (starting) point"; (figuratively) what comes first and therefore is chief (foremost), i.e. has the priority because ahead of the rest ("preeminent").
Creation
Strong's Concordance
ktisis: creation (the act or the product)
Original Word: κτίσις, εως, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: ktisis
Phonetic Spelling: (ktis'-is)
Definition: creation (the act or the product)
Usage: (often of the founding of a city), (a) abstr: creation, (b) concr: creation, creature, institution; always of Divine work, (c) an institution, ordinance.
HELPS Word-studies
Cognate: 2937 ktísis – properly, creation (creature) which is founded from nothing
Jesus is also the root of David. (Rev 22:16)
Root
Strong's Concordance
rhiza: a root
Original Word: ῥίζα, ης, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: rhiza
Phonetic Spelling: (hrid'-zah)
Definition: a root
Usage: a root, shoot, source; that which comes from the root, a descendent.
nor will they say, ‘Behold, here it is!’ or ‘There!’ For behold, the kingdom of God is in your midst.” (Luke 17:21)
Kingdom
Strong's Concordance
basileia: kingdom, sovereignty, royal power
Original Word: βασιλεία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: basileia
Phonetic Spelling: (bas-il-i'-ah)
Definition: kingdom, sovereignty, royal power
Usage: kingship, sovereignty, authority, rule, especially of God, both in the world, and in the hearts of men; hence: kingdom, in the concrete sense.
Jesus was referring to himself in the feminine sense just like a hen who wanted to gather her chicks under her wings...(Matthew 23:37)
Therefore, Jesus words are true and accurate... In prayer to His Father- Jesus sates the truth, that His God and Father is the only true God (Θεὸν)
- Θεὸν whether you use a definite article or not is ALWAYS a Masculine Singular Accusative Noun.
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"θεὸς in clause three is a feminine nominative noun which invokes a feminine sense..."
This was addressed in a previous post where you stated the following, "Since the feminine noun of theos was invoked by with-holding the definite article (ho) by the Apostle John".
Your "invoked by with-holding the definite article", was demonstrated to be a false narrative as there are numerous instances of the anarthrous θεός in the LXX where Yahweh is in view (Ge. 17:7-8, 21:33; Ex. 6:7, etc.). This holds true in the NT as well (Mk. 12:27; Lk. 2:14, 12:21, 20:38; Jn. 3:21, etc.).
Unless, of course, you wish to affirm all those anarthrous instances in scripture pertaining to Yahweh should be taken in a "feminine sense" regulating Him to "a god" – as per your stated position applied to Jn. 1:1 third clause.
As far as θεὸς being a "feminine nominative noun" in that third clause I disagree quite strenuously as θεός is masculine grammatical gender. If you really, really, want a "feminine nominative noun" in the third clause, then insert a feminine nominative ἡ in your text.
From Accordance:
From Logos:
The list you provided from Strong's Concordance of feminine nouns, ἀρχή, κτίσις, ῥίζα, βασιλεία, are indeed feminine grammatical gender but have absolutely no bearing upon the word θεὸς; contrary to your own private interpretation of how these feminine nouns relate to the third clause.
Provide for me a detailed discussion found within an academic source where this concept of yours, "θεὸς in clause three is a feminine nominative noun which invokes a feminine sense of divine qualitative of Being FIRSTBORN.", exists.
"Jesus was referring to himself in the feminine sense just like a hen who wanted to gather her chicks under her wings...(Matthew 23:37"
We disagree on Jesus "referring to himself in the feminine sense" here. To those he is addressing he uses a figure of speech that pictures his overall concern and care for the people of Israel. He is not referring to himself as a hen; nor, is it the point of his discourse to have the people look to him in some sort of "feminine sense".
"Θεὸν whether you use a definite article or not is ALWAYS a Masculine Singular Accusative Noun."
Speaking of grammatical gender again you are partially correct in your statement that θεὸν or θεὸν with a masculine singular accusative article τὸν will be masculine (τὸν θεὸν). However, if using a feminine article that is in agreement with θεὸν, in this case τὴν; then, θεὸν becomes a feminine noun as per Acts 19:37 (τὴν θεὸν).
You may have forgotten θεός is a 2nd declension noun and takes masculine and feminine grammatical gender; which, in the case of θεός will correspond also in natural gender – god, goddess.
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@Keep_Smiling_4_Jesus
Christpretending to be @Pages don't you get tired of being somebody you're not? Isn't that being engaged in hyper hypocrisy?@Brother Rando "Θεὸν whether you use a definite article or not is ALWAYS a Masculine Singular Accusative Noun."
@Keep_Smiling_4_Jesus
ChristSpeaking of grammatical gender again you are partially correct in your statement that θεὸν or θεὸν with a masculine singular accusative article τὸν will be masculine (τὸν θεὸν).@Brother Rando Because the statement I made is accurate and true.
@Keep_Smiling_4_Jesus
ChristSpeaking of grammatical gender again you are partially correct in your statement that θεὸν or θεὸν with a masculine singular accusative article τὸν will be masculine (τὸν θεὸν). However, if using a feminine article that is in agreement with θεὸν, in this case τὴν; then, θεὸν becomes a feminine noun as per Acts 19:37 (τὴν θεὸν).@Brother Rando Took you forever even though you still do not know or understand your own answer the answer. τὴν was used to change and differentiate gods, and in this example a false goddess by the Apostle Paul.
- Why Paul did engage into paganism using (gender)? For the obvious reason of saving some. "To the weak I became weak, in order that I may gain the weak. I have become all things to all people, in order that by all means I may save some." (1 Cor 8:22 LEB)
Strong's Concordance
theos: God, a god
Original Word: θεός, οῦ, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine; Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: theos
Phonetic Spelling: (theh'-os)
Definition: God, a god
Usage: (a) God, (b) a god, generally.
Notice that goddess is missing from the Strong's Concordance because it is a feminine gender. So you see you are quite wrong in all aspects.... both Wisdom and Kingdom are feminine nouns not feminine genders
Wisdom of God states, "I was beside him, a master workman," Notice that GENDER of Wisdom is a Master Workman?
Kingdom
Strong's Concordance
basileia: kingdom, sovereignty, royal power
Original Word: βασιλεία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: basileia
Phonetic Spelling: (bas-il-i'-ah)
Definition: kingdom, sovereignty, royal power
Usage: kingship, sovereignty, authority, rule, especially of God, both in the world, and in the hearts of men; hence: kingdom, in the concrete sense.
Authority (Matthew 28:18)
Strong's Concordance
exousia: power to act, authority
Original Word: ἐξουσία, ας, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: exousia
Phonetic Spelling: (ex-oo-see'-ah)
Definition: power to act, authority
Usage: (a) power, authority, weight, especially: moral authority, influence, (b) in a quasi-personal sense, derived from later Judaism, of a spiritual power, and hence of an earthly power.
HELPS Word-studies
1849 eksousía (from 1537 /ek, "out from," which intensifies 1510 /eimí, "to be, being as a right or privilege") – authority, conferred power; delegated empowerment ("authorization"), operating in a designated jurisdiction.
And Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. (Matthew 28:18)
Beginning.
Strong's Concordance
arché: beginning, origin
Original Word: ἀρχή, ῆς, ἡ
Part of Speech: Noun, Feminine
Transliteration: arché
Phonetic Spelling: (ar-khay')
Definition: beginning, origin
Usage: (a) rule (kingly or magisterial), (b) plur: in a quasi-personal sense, almost: rulers, magistrates, (c) beginning.
HELPS Word-studies
746 arxḗ – properly, from the beginning (temporal sense), i.e. "the initial (starting) point"; (figuratively) what comes first and therefore is chief (foremost), i.e. has the priority because ahead of the rest ("preeminent").
Since beginning refers to the Word... HE is the Beginning of Creation. 746 arxḗ – properly, from the beginning (temporal sense), i.e. "the initial (starting) point"; (figuratively) what comes first and therefore is chief (foremost), i.e. has the priority because ahead of the rest ("preeminent").
God has no brothers... God is eternal... It's Father and Son relationship... Jesus said to her, “Do not touch me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. But go to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and my God (θεὸν) and your God (θεὸν).’ ” (John 20:17 LEB)
- Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God (τὸν θεὸν), and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. (John 17:3)
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"τὴν was used to change and differentiate gods, and in this example a false goddess by the Apostle Paul."
So you agree that θεὸν (masculine grammatical gender) is identified as feminine grammatical gender by the use of the feminine singular accusative article τὴν which reads goddess (τὴν θεὸν – Acts 19:37).
From your statement it appears you must then be in agreement also with whichever grammatical gender θεός takes, be it masculine or feminine, it will follow natural gender – as stated below.
- There are a number of Greek nouns which may take masculine or feminine gender, depending upon whether the item referred to is male or female: θεός, παῖς, ὄνος, ἄρκτος.
(Porter, S. E. (1999). Idioms of the Greek New Testament (p. 101). JSOT.)
"Why Paul did engage into paganism using (gender)?"
Can you explain why you equate grammatical gender of this language to paganism? You wrote this in a previous post "No... only pagans do that!" responding to my mention of grammatical gender.
Regarding the two comments mentioned above I'm curious if you then consider the Hebrew language in the same light due to it having grammatical gender also?
"Notice that goddess is missing from the Strong's Concordance because it is a feminine gender."
In light of that statement you may want to consider broadening the scope of linguistic resources available for study and research.
Strong's Concordance was simply not intended, nor designed, to be an in-depth lexical resource for this language. Though, I must say, it ought to have been clearly self-evident that feminine noun would be referring to a female θεός – god, goddess.
Certainly you could have confirmed that was the case had you utilized other lexical resources beyond Strong's Concordance. The following is a brief sample taken from other available sources.
- θεός, οῦ, ὁ (ἡ) theos God, god (goddess)
(Balz, H. R., & Schneider, G. (1990–). In Exegetical dictionary of the New Testament (Vol. 2, p. 140). Eerdmans.)
- θεός, οῦ (Hom.+; Herm. Wr.; ins, pap, LXX, pseudepigr., Philo, Joseph.) ὁ and ἡ,
- —ἡ θεός the (female) god, goddess (Att., later more rarely; Peripl. Eryth. c. 58; Lucian, Dial. Deor. 17, 2; SIG 695, 28; ins, one of which refers to Artemis, in Hauser p. 81f; Jos., Ant. 9, 19; Ar. 11, 2 [Artemis]; Ath. 29, 2 [Ino]) Ac 19:37.—Pl. Ac 7:40 (Ex 32:1).
(Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). In A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., p. 450). University of Chicago Press.)
- θεός, ου, ὁ/ἡ
(Danker, F. W., & Krug, K. (2009). θεός. In The Concise Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (p. 168). The University of Chicago Press.)
- θεός (a) a god or goddess, John 10:34, 35, Ac. 7:40, 14:11, 19:26, 37, 1 Cor. 8:5, Gal. 4:8; (b) the god.
(Souter, A. (1917). In A Pocket Lexicon to the Greek New Testament (p. 110). Clarendon Press.)
- θεός -οῦ, ὁ, ἡ ⓐ god, goddess, divinity IL. 1.8, al. etc.; θήλεια θεός …
(Montanari, F. (2015). In M. Goh & C. Schroeder (Eds.), The Brill Dictionary of Ancient Greek. Brill.)
- II. θεός as fem. for θεά, θέαινα, a goddess, Hom.; θήλεια θεός Il.; ἡ νερτέρα θ. Proserpine, Soph.
(Liddell, H. G. (1996). In A lexicon: Abridged from Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English lexicon (p. 362). Logos Research Systems, Inc.)
- θεός, -οῦ, ὁ and ἡ
(Thayer, J. H. (1889). In A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament: being Grimm’s Wilke's Clavis Novi Testamenti (p. 287). Harper & Brothers.)
- Inscriptions give a parallel for ἡ θεός and ἡ θεά Ac 19:27. Also papyri: θεοὶ … πᾶσαι P. Eleph. 2313 (223 B.C.). SB 3444 (iii/B.C.). Or. gr. 13212 (130 B.C.). θεὰς πάσας P. Grad.=SB 5680 (229 B.C.). Attic θεός was common gender, but later -α indicated a fem, deity.
(Moulton, J. H., & Turner, N. (1963–). A grammar of New Testament Greek: Syntax. (Vol. 3, p. 22). T. & T. Clark.)
"both Wisdom and Kingdom are feminine nouns not feminine genders"
Neither Wisdom nor Kingdom have any specific bearing on the noun θεός in its use as god or goddess. Additionally, as stated multiple times now in this thread, a feminine noun is feminine grammatical gender within this language.
- grammatical gender. n. The designation of the gender of words—whether masculine, feminine or neuter—not based on whether the objects in question are truly male or female (called natural gender) but solely based on grammatical usage.
(DeMoss, M. S. (2001). Pocket dictionary for the study of New Testament Greek (p. 64). InterVarsity Press.)
Words do not possess sex. Noun gender is a classification of grammatical category (masculine, feminine, neuter) in this language.
So, if the intent of your statement above is that a "feminine noun" is grammatical gender, and "feminine gender" is possessing sex (natural gender); then, that is correct for the feminine nouns, σοφία and βασιλεία.
However, as should be quite apparent to you by now, the noun θεός takes masculine or feminine grammatical gender. And for θεός the grammatical gender used will coincide with natural gender (male, female) – θεός, ὁ θεός, god; ἡ θεός, goddess. (see Porter citation at the top of post)
"Wisdom of God states, "I was beside him, a master workman," Notice that GENDER of Wisdom is a Master Workman?" (bold mine)
Gender, as in grammatical, or natural?
And, are you referencing the LXX or MT? I would hope the LXX since our discussion in this thread is based upon the Greek language. So, are you referring to ἁρμόζουσα the present active participle (nominative singular feminine) used in the LXX (Prov. 8:30)?
Just a follow-up on my previous post as I'm still interested in your providing a detailed discussion that is found within an academic source where this concept of yours, "θεὸς in clause three is a feminine nominative noun", exists.
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@Pages So you agree that θεὸν (masculine grammatical gender) is identified as feminine grammatical gender by the use of the feminine singular accusative article τὴν which reads goddess (τὴν θεὸν – Acts 19:37).
@Brother Rando - No. θεὸν is naturally is masculine sense in its state whether you use (ton) or not. TON is for emphasis as in the word was with (the God) τὸν θεὸν --- I agree that τὴν is identified as feminine grammatical gender by the use of the feminine singular accusative article τὴν which reads goddess (τὴν θεὸν – Acts 19:37).
- Jesus doesn't have this 'superlative title' τὸν θεὸν nor is he called τὴν θεὸν (a goddess)
In the case of Acts 19:37 The Apostle Paul inserted τὴν - τήν • (tḗn) ( Attic, Epic, Ionic) feminine accusative singular of ὁ (ho) which forces the Greek grammar into the feminine gender - What was Paul doing? He was preaching and ministering to pagans in order to SAVE some.
To the weak I became weak, in order that I may gain the weak. I have become all things to all people, in order that by all means I may save some. (1 Cor 9:22)
Even though Demas at one time was a brother and was SAVED, he fell away --- For Demas deserted me, because he loved the present age, and went to Thessalonica. Crescen went to Galatia; Titus went to Dalmatia. (2 Tim 4:10)
@Brother Rando "both Wisdom and Kingdom are feminine nouns not feminine genders"
@Pages Neither Wisdom nor Kingdom have any specific bearing on the noun θεός in its use as god or goddess. Additionally, as stated multiple times now in this thread, a feminine noun is feminine grammatical gender within this language.
You agree with me then disagree simply because Jehovah Witnesses have the truth... Jesus is NEVER a female god (a goddess)
Feminine Gender is different than feminine sense which is expressed by feminine nouns. Here are some of your very quotes that show how the feminine gender is invoked which I am sure you disagree with your own quoting...
@Pages θεός -οῦ, ὁ, ἡ ⓐ god, goddess, divinity IL. 1.8, al. etc.; θήλεια θεός
@Brother Rando - Notice the ἡ or τὴν is identified as feminine grammatical gender by the use of the feminine singular accusative article τὴν which reads goddess (τὴν θεὸν – Acts 19:37).
@Pages Just a follow-up on my previous post as I'm still interested in your providing a detailed discussion that is found within an academic source where this concept of yours, "θεὸς in clause three is a feminine nominative noun", exists.
@Brother Rando - Your false claim that divinity is a female person is wrong. Deity of Christ is HIS divine nature... John 1:1c is not ACCUSATIVE! HE was Personally Begotten from HIS FATHER... the BEGINNING of CREATION (In the Beginning was the WORD)
Any feminine noun can be used in John 1:1c
- and the Word was Godlike
- and the Word was the Beginning
- and the Word was the Beginning of Creation
- and the Word was the Wisdom of God
Both Beginning and Creation are feminine nouns that expressing his divinity as the Beginning of Creation (Rev 3:14) They are not feminine genders as your claim...
Revelation 3:14 — The New International Version (NIV)
14 “To the angel of the church in Laodicea write:
These are the words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the ruler of God’s creation.
Revelation 3:14 — King James Version (KJV 1900)
14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;
Revelation 3:14 — New Living Translation (NLT)
14 “Write this letter to the angel of the church in Laodicea. This is the message from the one who is the Amen—the faithful and true witness, the beginning of God’s new creation:
Revelation 3:14 — The New King James Version (NKJV)
14 “And to the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write,
‘These things says the Amen, the Faithful and True Witness, the Beginning of the creation of God:
Revelation 3:14 — New Century Version (NCV)
14 “Write this to the angel of the church in Laodicea:
“The Amen, the faithful and true witness, the ruler of all God has made, says this:
Revelation 3:14 — American Standard Version (ASV)
14 And to the angel of the church in Laodicea write:
These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God:
Revelation 3:14 — 1890 Darby Bible (DARBY)
14 And to the angel of the assembly in Laodicea write: These things says the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God:
Revelation 3:14 — GOD’S WORD Translation (GW)
14 “To the messenger of the church in Laodicea, write:
The amen, the witness who is faithful and true, the source of God’s creation, says:
Revelation 3:14 — The Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB)
14 “Write to the angel of the church in Laodicea:
“The Amen, the faithful and true Witness, the Originator of God’s creation says:
Revelation 3:14 — The New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)
14 “And to the angel of the church in Laodicea write: The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the origin of God’s creation:
Revelation 3:14 — The Lexham English Bible (LEB)
14 “And to the angel of the church in Laodicea write:
“This is what the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the originator of God’s creation, says:
Revelation 3:14 — New International Reader’s Version (1998) (NIrV)
14 “Here is what I command you to write to the church in Laodicea.
Here are the words of the One who is the Amen. What he gives witness to is faithful and true. He rules over what God has created. He says,
Revelation 3:14 — New American Standard Bible: 1995 Update (NASB95)
14 “To the angel of the church in Laodicea write:
The Amen, the faithful and true Witness, the Beginning of the creation of God, says this:
Now it's your turn.. Prove to me that Kingdom, Wisdom, Grace, Beginning, Creation are goddesses....
