The Deity of Jesus: "The Logos was God"
C Mc
Posts: 4,455
The Deity of Jesus is the center of all New Testament theology (or theologies). Why? Because "Jesus is God." It's in plain sight from Genesis to Revelation. Jesus is Co-equal, Co-creator, and Co-eternal with the Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit. There is no hiding, no shame. It's plain for all to see:
- John 1:1
- John 1:18
- John 20:28
- Rom. 9:5
- Col. 2:2
- Titus. 2:13
- Heb. 1:8-9
- 2 Pet. 1:1 (See sources for others).
Out of these eight passages, three are found in John. Of these three, everyone acknowledges John 20:28 to be an unequivocal "deity-passage." Even a skeptic, Taylor, couldn't help but call the texts above "one clear ascription of Deity to Christ." What an acknowledgment this man gives in comparison to many professed Christian today.
Many tried to deny Jesus Christ was God incarnate. Their failure is equivalent to a man denying he was born. He may not know his birthday, but he can't deny his existence (see Hicks, Green; especially, Green's essay, "Jesus in the New Testament").
Read your Bible, the sources (below) to stimulate your thoughts, and add to the conversation in declaring the absolute Deity of Jesus: "The Logos was God." It's a treasure trove of biblical truth. CM
SOURCES:
- John Hick, ed. The Myth of God Incarnate, (Philadelphia: Westminster Press, 1977).
- Michael Green. ed, The Truth of God Incarnate, (Grand Rapids, Mich.: Eerdmans, 1977) 17ff.
- Rudolf Bultmann "The Christological Confession of the World Council of Churches", Essays Philosophical and Theological, tr. James C. G. Greig (New York: Macmillan, 1955), 273ff.
- Vincent Taylor "Does the New Testament Call Jesus "God"?", Expository Times, 73 (1961-62), 116ff.).
- Raymond Brown "Does the New Testament Call Jesus "God"?", Theological Studies, 26 (1955), 545ff.).
- Oscar Cullmann, The Christology of the New Testament, rev. ed., tr. Shirley C. Guthrie and Charles A. M. Hall (Philadelphia: Westminster Press, 1963), Ch. 11.
- A. W. Wainwright, "The Confession "Jesus Is God" in the New Testament", Scottish Journal of Theology, 10 (1957), 274ff.
- Ethelbert Stauffer, "Christ as Theos in Early Christianity", in Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, ed. Gerhard Kittel and Gerhard Friedrich, tr. and ed. Geoffrey W. Bromiley (Grand Rapids, Mich.: Eerdmans, 1964-76), III, 104ff., and
- Johannes Schneider's contribution, "Christ as God",' in The New Interternation Dictionary of the New Testament, ed. Lothar Coenen, et. al., tr. and ed. Colin Brown (Exeter, England: Paternoster Press, 1975-78), 11, 80ff.
Comments
Apostate and opposers of Jesus Christ never mention (John 17:3) for three reasons. Jesus calls His Father, the only true theon.
Pagan Holy days such as Eastre' and Saturnalia is still worshipped to this very day by trinitarians.
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JW's prove that the trinity is a fasle god.
For proof of the trinity some quote 1 John 5:7: “There are Three who give testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost. And these three are one.” (Dy) However, these words are no part of God’s inspired Word, not being found in any Greek manuscript earlier than the fifteenth century, nor in Jerome’s Latin Vulgate, nor in any Latin version written before the ninth century.
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@BroRando
Trinitarians don't beleive Jesus was sent nor begotten. They cling to the pagan and demonic teaching of incarnation.
Really? How exactly did the angel Michael experience birth, becoming in flesh Jesus? Is that not definitional of incarnation?
Since Michael was created in the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation, his name reflects that meaning. Michael when translated means 'Who is Godlike?' or 'Who Is Like God?' The scripture points this meaning out quite nicely, "You made him a little lower than godlike ones, And you crowned him with glory and splendor." (Psalm 8:5) Immanuel when translated means "With us is God?'
The Scriptures also point out that Michael was sent and given the name to the glory of God the Father. "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human." (Philippians 2:5-7) Yes, this very angel would be given the name to the glory of God the Father and have his Father's Name in him. “I am no longer in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, watch over them on account of your own name, which you have given me, so that they may be one just as we are one."(John 17:11)
"More than that, when he came as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to the point of death, yes, death on a torture stake. For this very reason, God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend—of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground— and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father." (Philippians 2:8-11) The Name (Jesus) when translated means “Jehovah Is Salvation.”
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@BroRando
Since Michael was created in the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation, his name reflects that meaning. Michael when translated means 'Who is Godlike?' or 'Who Is Like God?' The scripture points this meaning out quite nicely, "You made him a little lower than godlike ones, And you crowned him with glory and splendor." (Psalm 8:5) Immanuel when translated means "With us is God?'
The Scriptures also point out that Michael was sent and given the name to the glory of God the Father. "Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human." (Philippians 2:5-7) Yes, this very angel would be given the name to the glory of God the Father and have his Father's Name in him. “I am no longer in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, watch over them on account of your own name, which you have given me, so that they may be one just as we are one."(John 17:11)
"More than that, when he came as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to the point of death, yes, death on a torture stake. For this very reason, God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend—of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground— and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father." (Philippians 2:8-11) The Name (Jesus) when translated means “Jehovah Is Salvation.”
None of the above answers the question raised.
@BroRando
Let's try again. Is Michael, an angel, in-flesh Jesus?
"Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human." (Philippians 2:5-7) Yes, this very angel would be given the name to the glory of God the Father and have his Father's Name in him. “I am no longer in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, watch over them on account of your own name, which you have given me, so that they may be one just as we are one."(John 17:11)
"I am sending an angel ahead of you to guard you on the way and to bring you into the place that I have prepared. Pay attention to him, and obey his voice. Do not rebel against him, for he will not pardon your transgressions, because my name is in him." (Exodus 23:20-21)
"More than that, when he came as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to the point of death, yes, death on a torture stake. For this very reason, God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend—of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground— and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father." (Philippians 2:8-11) The Name (Jesus) when translated means “Jehovah Is Salvation.”
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@BroRando
So far, an answer to the question raised has not been forthcoming. What has been asked is specific to the angel Michael and his enfleshment as Jesus.
Once again, I ask, did the angel Michael experience physical birth as the person Jesus?
"And the Word was a god," article in Manford's Magazine 1887
With Christians there is but one God; and hence, if Jesus is called God, it is concluded at once, and with apparent reason, that he must be Jehovah himself, as there is no other. But in the time of Christ, there were "gods many and lords many." It was believed that men who were great in this world, became gods in the world to come; and this exaltation was sometimes anticipated by their being deified while on earth.
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@BroRando
The Watch Tower's view, in my understanding of it, is that Michael is a spirit being of the non-physical realm – an angel, the first creation of God.
Jesus, on the other hand, is a physical being of the physical realm – a human, born of Mary (cf. Matt 1:18ff).
In Jn. 1:14 the Word becomes flesh, and it is this becoming flesh that corresponds to the birth narrative found in Matt. 1:18-25 and Lk. 1:26-35, 2:1-7.
So it seems to me, according to what I believe I understand to be the WT view, is that Wisdom also occupies the first creation of God. So, are Wisdom and Micheal one in the same being? – as there can be only one first creation – then, however that plays out, the above are given the title Word in Jn 1:1. Then we come to Jn. 1:14 where the Word becomes flesh.
Hopefully, this assessment is correct in it's concise form.
Assuming the belief that Jesus was real human flesh (corporeal) and Michael a non-corporeal being who then is in flesh Jesus – what term do you use to describe this enfleshment?
...the pagan and demonic teaching of incarnation.
Quoting you, the above condemnation of the incarnation would leave little option for the WT's view of Michael's enfleshment, in my opinion, other than possession.
Just to help with what incarnation is defined as: INCARNATION. “Incarnation” means literally “en-fleshment” or, slightly more fully, “embodiment in flesh.” (Dunn, J. D. G. (1992). Incarnation. In D. N. Freedman (Ed.), The Anchor Yale Bible Dictionary (Vol. 3, p. 397). Doubleday.)
JW books in pdf format to better understand what they teach. Let me read it for myself. @BroRando is too cagey and repetitive to get the context needed. Can anyone help? CM
PS. The book entitled, "Let God Be True," where can I find this in pdf?
@C Mc posted:
PS. The book entitled, "Let God Be True," where can I find this in pdf?
I found the book (actually, Google told me I'd find the book) in PDF format HERE.
Thanks, Bill. CM
To My fellow Bible Believing Posters:
God has spoken. The surrogates of God's enemy will growl as rabid dogs over this truth. Nevertheless, enjoy the truth from eternity on John 1:1. CM
Ἐν (Root: εν, LN: 67.33; preposition)
in
Contained in: Prepositional Phrase
Syntactic Force: Temporal preposition
Words Modified by Ἐν
• preposition-to-noun relation: The word Ἐν modifies ἀρχῇ (noun) in Jn 1:1, word 2 (ἀρχῇ is within the current clausal unit, after Ἐν).
ἀρχῇ (Root: αρχω, LN: 67.65; noun, dative, singular, feminine)
beginning
Contained in: Prepositional Phrase
Syntactic Force: Prepositional object
Words That Modify ἀρχῇ
• preposition-to-noun relation: The word ἀρχῇ is modified by Ἐν (preposition) in Jn 1:1, word 1 (Ἐν is within the current clausal unit, before ἀρχῇ).
ἦν (Root: ειμι, LN: 13.69; verb, imperfect, active, indicative, third person, singular)
to be
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Finite verb
Words That Modify ἦν
• conjunctive relation: The word ἦν is modified by καὶ (conjunction) in Jn 1:1, word 6 (καὶ is outside of the current clausal unit).
ὁ (Root: ο, LN: 92.24; article, nominative, singular, masculine)
the
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Attributive article
Words Modified by ὁ
• articular relation: The word ὁ modifies λόγος (noun) in Jn 1:1, word 5 (λόγος is within the current clausal unit, after ὁ).
λόγος (Root: λεγω, LN: 33.100; noun, nominative, singular, masculine)
word
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Subject
Words That Modify λόγος
• articular relation: The word λόγος is modified by ὁ (article) in Jn 1:1, word 4 (ὁ is within the current clausal unit, before λόγος).
καὶ (Root: και, LN: 89.92; conjunction, logical, connective)
and
Contained in: Sentence
Syntactic Force: Copulative conjunction
Words Modified by καὶ
• conjunctive relation: The word καὶ modifies ἦν (verb) in Jn 1:1, word 3 (ἦν is outside of the current clausal unit).
• conjunctive relation: The word καὶ modifies ἦν (verb) in Jn 1:1, word 9 (ἦν is outside of the current clausal unit).
ὁ (Root: ο, LN: 92.24; article, nominative, singular, masculine)
the
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Attributive article
Words Modified by ὁ
• articular relation: The word ὁ modifies λόγος (noun) in Jn 1:1, word 8 (λόγος is within the current clausal unit, after ὁ).
λόγος (Root: λεγω, LN: 33.100; noun, nominative, singular, masculine)
word
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Subject
Words That Modify λόγος
• articular relation: The word λόγος is modified by ὁ (article) in Jn 1:1, word 7 (ὁ is within the current clausal unit, before λόγος).
ἦν (Root: ειμι, LN: 58.67; verb, imperfect, active, indicative, third person, singular)
to be
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Finite verb
Words That Modify ἦν
• conjunctive relation: The word ἦν is modified by καὶ (conjunction) in Jn 1:1, word 6 (καὶ is outside of the current clausal unit).
• prepositional relation: The word ἦν is modified by πρὸς (preposition) in Jn 1:1, word 10 (πρὸς is outside of the current clausal unit).
• conjunctive relation: The word ἦν is modified by καὶ (conjunction) in Jn 1:1, word 13 (καὶ is outside of the current clausal unit).
πρὸς (Root: προς, LN: 89.112; preposition)
with
Contained in: Prepositional Phrase
Syntactic Force: Preposition of association
Words Modified by πρὸς
• prepositional relation: The word πρὸς modifies ἦν (verb) in Jn 1:1, word 9 (ἦν is outside of the current clausal unit).
τὸν (Root: ο, LN: 92.24; article, accusative, singular, masculine)
the
Contained in: Prepositional Phrase
Syntactic Force: Attributive article
Words Modified by τὸν
• articular relation: The word τὸν modifies θεόν (noun) in Jn 1:1, word 12 (θεόν is within the current clausal unit, after τὸν).
θεόν (Root: θεος, LN: 12.1; noun, accusative, singular, masculine)
God
Contained in: Prepositional Phrase
Syntactic Force: Prepositional object
Words That Modify θεόν
• articular relation: The word θεόν is modified by τὸν (article) in Jn 1:1, word 11 (τὸν is within the current clausal unit, before θεόν).
καὶ (Root: και, LN: 89.92; conjunction, logical, connective)
and
Contained in: Sentence
Syntactic Force: Copulative conjunction
Words Modified by καὶ
• conjunctive relation: The word καὶ modifies ἦν (verb) in Jn 1:1, word 9 (ἦν is outside of the current clausal unit).
• conjunctive relation: The word καὶ modifies ἦν (verb) in Jn 1:1, word 15 (ἦν is outside of the current clausal unit).
θεὸς (Root: θεος, LN: 12.1; noun, nominative, singular, masculine)
God
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Predicate nominative
ἦν (Root: ειμι, LN: 58.67; verb, imperfect, active, indicative, third person, singular)
to be
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Finite verb
Words That Modify ἦν
• conjunctive relation: The word ἦν is modified by καὶ (conjunction) in Jn 1:1, word 13 (καὶ is outside of the current clausal unit).
ὁ (Root: ο, LN: 92.24; article, nominative, singular, masculine)
the
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Attributive article
Words Modified by ὁ
• articular relation: The word ὁ modifies λόγος (noun) in Jn 1:1, word 17 (λόγος is within the current clausal unit, after ὁ).
λόγος (Root: λεγω, LN: 33.100; noun, nominative, singular, masculine)
word
Contained in: Segment Clause
Syntactic Force: Subject
Words That Modify λόγος
• articular relation: The word λόγος is modified by ὁ (article) in Jn 1:1, word 16 (ὁ is within the current clausal unit, before λόγος).
SOURCE:
Lukaszewski, A. L., & Dubis, M. (2009). The Lexham Syntactic Greek New Testament: Expansions and Annotations (Jn 1:1). Logos Bible Software.
How does John 1:1 read with a literal translation?
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος reads
En archí ín o lógos, kaí o lógos ín prós tón theón, kaí theós ín o lógos
Word for Word translation of Koine Greek:
Jesus is never referred to as the theon because Jesus was begotten and came into existence. Therefore, the Apostle John used the nominative title theos which means a god referring to the Word's divinity and godlike qualities.
Other languages use the indefinite article but Koine Greek in the first century did not. That is the very reason why two different forms of Greek words were used by the Apostle John, ton theon and theos.
John also did the same with "No man has ever seen theon at any time" (John 1:18) Again, Jesus is never mentioned as the theon. The Apostle John also personally heard the words of Jesus Christ when Jesus told his Father in Prayer, "This means everlasting life, their coming to know “You, the only true theon" in (John 17:3)
Read more...
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@BroRando January 11 How does John 1:1 read with a literal translation?
@BroRando January 11 Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος reads
@BroRando January 11 En archí ín o lógos, kaí o lógos ín prós tón theón, kaí theós ín o lógos
Puzzling transliteration that treats Greek letter eta ἦ as 'i' instead of ē (long e as Greek letter epsilon ε is short e). Also noticed rough breathing (h) at word beginning missing from transliteration. Curious is change of circumflex & grave accents into acute accent, which sounds different.
John 1:1 (SBLGNT) Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
Transliteration into English => En archē ēn ho logos, kai ho logos ēn pros ton theon, kai theos ēn ho logos.
Translation into English => In beginning was being the word, and the word was being with the God, and God was being the word.
Note: in my first year Koine Greek class in college, my professor ignored accents since up/down sound modification is not critical for reading.
@BroRando January 11 Other languages use the indefinite article but Koine Greek in the first century did not. That is the very reason why two different forms of Greek words were used by the Apostle John, ton theon and theos.
We agree Koine Greek does not have an indefinite article. We disagree about reason for two different spellings of Greek word θεὸς by the Apostle John. Like other languages, Koine Greek changes spelling to show grammatical usage and gender. Contextual meaning for a preposition depends on the grammatical spelling of the prepositional object.
Πρός
A. Basic Uses (with Accusative almost exclusively)
This preposition occurs only once with the genitive and only six times with the dative case, but almost 700 times with the accusative. Our treatment will be restricted thus to the accusative case (for the other cases used, see BAGD’s treatment).
1. Purpose: for, for the purpose of
2. Spatial: toward
3. Temporal: toward, for (duration)
4. Result: so that, with the result that
5. Opposition: against
6. Association: with, in company with (with stative verbs)
Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1996), 380.
Greek words τὸν θεόν (ton theon) are grammatically accusative, singular, masculine. Greek word θεὸς (theos) is grammatically nominative, singular, masculine.
Acts 19:27 has θεᾶς (theas) that is grammatically genitive, singular, feminine (goddess). Acts 19:37 has a Koine Greek textual variant: τὴν θεὸν (tēn theon) has grammatical accusative, singular, feminine article (the) followed by accusative, singular, masculine noun for translation of goddess. Textus Receptus has τὴν θεὰν (tēn thean) where article & noun are grammatically accusative, singular, feminine.
@BroRando January 11 Jesus is never referred to as the theon because Jesus was begotten and came into existence.
Why did the Jewish Rabbi Jesus command Jewish disciples of Jesus to be believing in Jesus the same as believing in The God (Ton Theon) ?
John 14:1 (SBLGNT) πιστεύετε εἰς τὸν θεόν, καὶ εἰς ἐμὲ πιστεύετε
Transliteration into English => pisteuete eis Ton Theov, kai eis eme pisteuete
Translation into English => Be Ye Believing in The God, also in Me Be Ye Believing (my literal translation showing continuous believing action command in present time)
Keep Smiling 😊
@BroRando
You have some fine sounding arguments, but you still fail to understand the truth of why Jesus Christ came to die for mankind and not an angel.
Here is some logic for you; there are hundreds of millions of angels in the kingdom of God, why did it HAVE to be the Arch-Angel Michael (who is actually a war Cherub, which is completely different to an angel), why couldn't it be the Arch-Angel Gavri-el or Rapha-el or the angel who wrestled with Jacob in Peni-el or the angel who gave knowledge about the birth of Samson.
Why did it have to be the Arch-Angel Micha-El who had to become a person to die for mankind?
You base your argument on "one" translation of a name, which holds no authority about the plans and purposes of God.
An arch-angel cannot empower a person to do the works of God, because an arch-angel is a servant of God themselves. Only God Himself can empower a person to do His will and His works. God will not give His glory to another. Servants cannot give power belonging to someone higher than themselves to someone else who is lower than themselves.
Meaning: an angel cannot empower a mortal man with the power of God, because the power does not belong to the angel.
If the power does not belong to the angel, the angel does not get to make the decision who should be empowered.
Man is empowered by God and God alone, because first of all the power belongs to God and therefore the authorisation is given by the true owner, and if the authorisation and empowerment is given by the true owner, the true owner has also taken all necessary measures to make sure the recipient has been cultivated and trained so they are properly prepared to handle the power they have been given.
When you understand why Jesus Christ had to come and die for mankind and not an angel, then you will move out of the realm of angelology and into knowledge of God.
@Whake Atuari Why did it have to be the Arch-Angel Micha-El who had to become a person to die for mankind?
You base your argument on "one" translation of a name, which holds no authority about the plans and purposes of God.
The Bible often calls Jesus “the Son of God.” (John 1:49) The expression “Son of God” acknowledges that God is the Creator, or Source, of all life, including that of Jesus. (Psalm 36:9; Revelation 4:11) The Bible does not teach that God literally fathered a child in the same way that humans produce children.
The Bible also calls the angels “sons of the true God.” (Job 1:6) And the Bible says that the first human, Adam, was a “son of God.” (Luke 3:38) However, because Jesus was God’s first creation and the only one created directly by him, the Bible describes Jesus as the foremost Son of God.
After this I saw another angel descending from heaven with great authority, and the earth was illuminated by his glory. (Rev 18:1)
@Whake Atuari Man is empowered by God and God alone, because first of all the power belongs to God and therefore the authorisation is given by the true owner, and if the authorisation and empowerment is given by the true owner, the true owner has also taken all necessary measures to make sure the recipient has been cultivated and trained so they are properly prepared to handle the power they have been given.
The first man, Adam, was created perfect, or without sin. He had the prospect of living forever but lost it by choosing to disobey God. (Genesis 3:17-19) When he had children, he passed on to them the defect of sin. (Romans 5:12) For this reason, the Bible indicates that Adam “sold” himself and his children into slavery to sin and death. (Romans 7:14) Being imperfect, none of them could buy back what Adam lost.—Psalm 49:7, 8.
God felt compassion for Adam’s descendants in their hopeless situation. (John 3:16) However, God’s standard of justice required that he not simply overlook or excuse their sins without a valid basis. (Psalm 89:14; Romans 3:23-26) God loves mankind, so he provided the necessary legal means for their sins to be not only forgiven but also eliminated. (Romans 5:6-8) The ransom is that legal basis.
Jesus’ sacrifice corresponds exactly to what Adam lost—one perfect human life. (1 Corinthians 15:21, 22, 45, 46) The Bible says: “Just as through the disobedience of the one man [Adam] many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one person [Jesus Christ] many will be made righteous.” (Romans 5:19) This explains how the death of one man can pay the ransom for many sinners. In fact, Jesus’ sacrifice is “a corresponding ransom for all” those who take the steps necessary to benefit from it.—1 Timothy 2:5, 6.
Nevertheless, the Father dispatched his Son to the earth to be born as a human baby. Doing so meant that for some decades, Jehovah had to forgo intimate association with his beloved Son in heaven. With intense interest, he watched from heaven as Jesus grew up to be a perfect man. At about 30 years of age, Jesus got baptized. We do not have to guess how Jehovah felt about him. The Father spoke personally from heaven: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.” (Matthew 3:17) Seeing that Jesus faithfully did all that had been prophesied, all that was asked of him, his Father must have been so pleased!—John 5:36; 17:4.
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@Whake Atuari
Young's Literal Translation (1 Thess 4:15, 16) for this to you we say in the word of the Lord, that we who are living -- who do remain over to the presence of the Lord -- may not precede those asleep, because the Lord himself, in a shout, in the Voice of a Chief-Messenger , and in the trump of God, shall come down from heaven, and the dead in Christ shall rise first,
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From the book: Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theo in Reference to Jesus. by Murray J. Harris
I will allow the author speak directly to CD Posters. The page references are in parentheses (p ):
Harris devotes a full chapter (chapters 2-11) to each of ten major passages:
For each of these he discusses the grammatical, theological, historical, literary, and other issues that affect the interpretation of “Theo”, weighs the pros and cons, and proposes a carefully nuanced conclusion.
Harris concludes that the use of “Theo” as a title for Jesus Christ is:
Chapter 12 considers more briefly seven other texts
Harris argues that "in none of these latter verses is a Christological use of ‘Theos’ at all likely" (271). Harris believes, in these verses, Theos is applied to God the Father, who manifests Himself through Christ.
Chapter 13, "Conclusions: Theos as a Christological Title”, two main contributions that (ὁ) θεός Christology” makes to general NT Christology:
Thus, Harris finds "in the Christological use of Theos. . . both the basis and the zenith of NT Christology: the basis, since Theos a Christological title that is primarily ontological in character ...the zenith, because Theos is a Christological title that explicitly and unequivocally asserts the deity of Christ" (p 299).
Jesus is God! CM
SOURCE:
@C Mc January 30 From the book: Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theo in Reference to Jesus. by Murray J. Harris
Republished by Wipf & Stock in 2008 => Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus
Contents
Preface
Acknowledgments
Abbreviations
I Introduction: Theos in the New Testament
II The Word Was God (John 1:1)
III The Only Son, Who Is God (John 1:18)
IV My Lord and My God! (John 20:28)
V The Church of God (Acts 20:28)
VI God Blessed Forever (Romans 9:5)
VII Our Great God and Savior (Titus 2:13)
VIII The Throne of God (Psalm 45:7–8)
IX The Throne of God (Hebrews 1:8–9)
X Our God and Savior (2 Peter 1:1)
XI The True God (1 John 5:20)
XII Other Texts
XIII Conclusions: Theos as a Christological Title
Appendixes
I The Definite Article in the Greek New Testament: Some General and Specific Principles
II An Outline of the New Testament Testimony to the Deity of Christ
Bibliography
Author Index
Subject Index
Index of Principal Greek Terms and Phrases
Reference Index
Old Testament
Old Testament Apocrypha
Old Testament Pseudepigrapha
New Testament
Other Ancient Authors and Writings
Murray J. Harris, Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus (Eugene, OR: Wipf & Stock, 2008), 7–8.
Notable missing from listed texts is believing command in John 14:1 yet was included in Appendix II A.2.b.(3) Object of saving faith.
πιστεύετε εἰς τὸν θεόν, καὶ εἰς ἐμὲ πιστεύετε (John 14:1 Greek spoken by יֵשׁוּעַ Yeshua to his Jewish disciples)
Be Ye Believing in The God, also in Me Be Ye Believing (archaic Ye shows plural You in suffix spelling of πιστεύετε)
Preface provides insight about text selection:
It is a curious fact that each of the texts to be examined contains an interpretative problem of some description; actually, most contain two or three. It may be helpful at this point to anticipate what is to come by classifying these various problems:
1. Textual: John 1:18; Acts 20:28; Gal. 2:20; Col. 2:2; 1 Tim. 3:16; Heb. 1:8; 2 Pet. 1:1; 1 John 5:20
2. Punctuation: John 1:1; Rom. 9:5
3. Grammatical:
a. Problems relating to the presence or absence or the repetition of the article: John 1:1, 18; 20:28; Rom. 9:5; 2 Thess. 1:12; Titus 2:13; 2 Pet. 1:1
b. General syntactical problems:
(1) Whether καί is epexegetic or two nouns are in epexegetic apposition: John 17:3; Gal. 2:20; Eph. 5:5; Col. 2:2; 2 Thess. 1:12; Titus 2:13; 2 Pet. 1:1
(2) Whether a case is nominative or vocative: John 20:28; Heb. 1:8–9
(3) Whether a word is substantival or adjectival: John 1:1, 18; Acts 20:28
4. Contextual:
a. Immediate: 1 John 5:20
b. Old Testament: Matt. 1:23; Heb. 1:8–9
The sixteen passages that will be considered are treated in canonical order within two groups—nine major texts and seven “other texts.”
Murray J. Harris, Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus (Eugene, OR: Wipf & Stock, 2008), 11–12.
Pages 315 to 317 have Appendix II
Appendix II
An Outline of the New Testament Testimony to the Deity of Christ
This outline does not purport to be in any sense an exhaustive analysis of the NT witness to Christ’s deity. Rather it is a sketch of one approach—a rather traditional approach—to this theme. Other complementary or supplementary approaches abound, such as the creative treatment of Jesus’ implicit claim to deity in his parables by P. B. Payne or R. T. France’s documentation from the Synoptic Gospels of Jesus’ assumption of the role of Yahweh (Jesus 150–59). For a brief discussion of the NT verses that seem, at first sight, to call Jesus’ divinity into question, see R. E. Brown, Reflections 6–10 (= “Jesus” 548–51).
A. Implicit Christology
1. Divine functions performed by Jesus
a. In relation to the universe
(1) Creator (John 1:3; Col. 1:16; Heb. 1:2)
(2) Sustainer (1 Cor. 8:6; Col. 1:17; Heb. 1:3)
(3) Author of life (John 1:4; Acts 3:15)
(4) Ruler (Matt. 28:18; Rom. 14:9; Rev. 1:5)
b. In relation to human beings
(1) Healing the sick (Mark 1:32–34; Acts 3:6; 10:38)
(2) Teaching authoritatively (Mark 1:21–22; 13:31)
(3) Forgiving sins (Mark 2:1–12; Luke 24:47; Acts 5:31; Col. 3:13)
(4) Granting salvation or imparting eternal life (Acts 4:12; Rom. 10:12–14)
(5) Dispensing the Spirit (Matt. 3:11; Acts 2:17, 33)
(6) Raising the dead (Luke 7:11–17; John 5:21; 6:40)
(7) Exercising judgment (Matt. 25:31–46; John 5:19–29; Acts 10:42; 1 Cor. 4:4–5)
2. Divine status claimed by or accorded to Jesus
a. In relation to his Father
(1) Possessor of divine attributes (John 1:4; 10:30; 21:17; Eph. 4:10; Col. 1:19; 2:9)
(2) Eternally existent (John 1:1; 8:58; 12:41; 17:5; 1 Cor. 10:4; Phil. 2:6; Heb. 11:26; 13:8; Jude 5)
(3) Equal in dignity (Matt. 28:19; John 5:23; 2 Cor. 13:14; Rev. 22:13; cf. 21:6)
(4) Perfect revealer (John 1:18; 14:9; Col. 1:15; Heb. 1:1–3)
(5) Embodiment of truth (John 1:9, 14; 6:32; 14:6; Rev. 3:7, 14)
(6) Joint possessor of the kingdom (Eph. 5:5; Rev. 11:15), churches (Rom. 16:16), Spirit (Rom. 8:9; Phil. 1:19), temple (Rev. 21:22), divine name (Matt 28:19; cf. Rev. 14:1), and throne (Rev. 22:1, 3)
b. In relation to human beings
(1) Recipient of praise (Matt. 21:15–16; Eph. 5:19; 1 Tim. 1:12; Rev. 5:8–14)
(2) Recipient of prayer (Acts 1:24; 7:59–60; 9:10–17, 21; 22:16, 19; 1 Cor. 1:2; 16:22; 2 Cor. 12:8)
(3) Object of saving faith (John 14:1; Acts 10:43; 16:31; Rom. 10:8–13)
(4) Object of worship (Matt. 14:33; 28:9, 17; John 5:23; 20:28; Phil. 2:10–11; Heb. 1:6; Rev. 5:8–12)
(5) Joint source of blessing (1 Cor. 1:3; 2 Cor. 1:2; Gal. 1:3; 1 Thess. 3:11; 2 Thess. 2:16)
(6) Object of doxologies (2 Tim. 4:18; 2 Pet. 3:18; Rev. 1:5b–6; 5:13)
B. Explicit Christology
1. Old Testament passages referring to Yahweh applied to Jesus
a. Character of Yahweh (Exod. 3:14 and Isa. 43:11 alluded to in John 8:58; Ps. 101:27–28 LXX [MT 102:28–29] quoted in Heb. 1:11–12; Isa. 44:6 alluded to in Rev. 1:17)
b. Holiness of Yahweh (Isa. 8:12–13 [cf. 29:23] quoted in 1 Pet. 3:14–15)
c. Descriptions of Yahweh (Ezek. 43:2 and Dan. 10:5–6 alluded to in Rev. 1:13–16)
d. Worship of Yahweh (Isa. 45:23 alluded to in Phil. 2:10–11; Deut. 32:43 LXX and Ps. 96:7 LXX [MT 97:7] quoted in Heb. 1:6)
e. Work of Yahweh in creation (Ps. 101:26 LXX [MT 102:27] quoted in Heb. 1:10)
f. Salvation of Yahweh (Joel 2:32 [MT 3:5] quoted in Rom. 10:13; cf. Acts 2:21; Isa. 40:3 quoted in Matt. 3:3)
g. Trustworthiness of Yawheh (Isa. 28:16 quoted in Rom. 9:33; 10:11; 1 Pet. 2:6)
h. Judgment of Yahweh (Isa. 6:10 alluded to in John 12:41; Isa. 8:14 quoted in Rom. 9:33 and 1 Pet. 2:8)
i. Triumph of Yahweh (Ps. 68:18 [MT v. 19] quoted in Eph. 4:8)
2. Divine titles claimed by or applied to Jesus
a. Son of Man (Matt. 16:28; 24:30; Mark 8:38; 14:62–64; Acts 7:56)
b. Son of God (Matt. 11:27; Mark 15:39; John 1:18; Rom. 1:4; Gal. 4:4; Heb. 1:2)
c. Messiah (Matt. 16:16; Mark 14:61; John 20:31)
d. Lord (Mark 12:35–37; John 20:28; Rom. 10:9; 1 Cor. 8:5–6; 12:3; 16:22; Phil. 2:11; 1 Pet. 2:3; 3:15)
e. Alpha and Omega (Rev. 22:13; cf. 1:8; 21:6, of the Lord God)
f. God (John 1:1, 18; 20:28; Rom. 9:5; Titus 2:13; Heb. 1:8; 2 Pet. 1:1)
Murray J. Harris, Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus (Eugene, OR: Wipf & Stock, 2008), 315–317.
Notably missing from Appendix II Yahweh list is the name in Jeremiah 23:5-6 LEB => “Look, days are coming,” declares יהוה Yahweh, “when I will raise up for David a righteous branch, and he will reign as king, and he will achieve success, and he will do justice and righteousness in the land. In his days Judah will be saved, and Israel will dwell in safety, and this is his name by which he will be called: ‘יהוה Yahweh is our righteousness.’
Hebrew noun צדקנו tzid-KAY-nu for righteousness has pronoun, suffixed, 1st person, plural (construct => of) whose literal translation is: 'Yahweh Righteousness of We'.
Keep Smiling 😊
@C Mc
Harris concludes that the use of “Theo” as a title for Jesus Christ is:
"" and
"" in Rom 9:5, Tit 2:13, Heb 1:8, and 2 Pet 1:1
"” in Jn 1:18
", but not likely” in Acts 20:28, Heb 1:9, and 1 Jn 5:20 (p ).
Not really... if you had dug a little deeper you would of found that the title "theo" is attributed to Jesus for being a god, godlike, who is like God. https://duckduckgo.com/?q=Theo&ia=web theo-: prefix meaning "a god"
Why not look up theomorphism to get a better handle where the meaning comes from instead of trying to invent an idea that is neither biblical or true?
https://www.thefreedictionary.com/theomorphism
Visit JW.org Get Accurate Answers to Your Questions. Bible is in over 120 (tongues) and over 1,070 languages of Bible Literature.
Better way to dig deeper is reading Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus whose conclusion in chapter 13 begins with:
XIII
Conclusions: Theos as a Christological Title
A. The Use of θεός in the Pre-Christian Era
B. The Use of θεός in the New Testament
C. The Application of θεός to Jesus Christ
D. Limitations to the Use of θεός in Reference to Jesus Christ
E. Date of the Emergence of θεός as a Christological Title
F. Origin of the Usage
G. Reasons for the Infrequency of the Usage
H. The Cruciality of the Johannine Testimony
I. θεῖος, θεότης, θειότης, and θεός
J. The Significance of the Christological Use of θεός
1. θεός Is a Christological Title That Is Primarily Ontological in Character
2. θεός Is a Christological Title That Explicitly Affirms the Deity of Jesus
K. “Jesus Is God” as a Theological Formulation in English
L. General Conclusion
A. The Use of θεός in the Pre-Christian Era
Chapter I discussed the three common Hebrew terms that are rendered by θεός in the LXX: אל, אלהים, and יהוה. All three words are used of the God of Israel but only the first two can also refer to a particular pagan deity or, as generic appellatives, designate deity as such. יהוה, however, is exclusively a proper noun, denoting Israel’s covenant God, never a common noun, and therefore, unlike אל and אלהים, it never refers to angels or human beings.
In extrabiblical literature, θεός has three primary referents. As applied to gods, it may refer to a particular god (or even goddess), to the supreme god, Zeus, or to deity in general, whether viewed in personal or impersonal terms. As applied to human beings, the title θεός was used to describe famous heroes, politicians, philosophers, patriarchs, renowned rulers, self-styled servants of God, or even people as intelligent beings. And Jewish writers roughly contemporary with the writing of the NT, such as Philo and Josephus, use θεός or ὁ θεός to refer to the God of Israel.
For any Jew or Gentile of the first century a.d. who was acquainted with the OT in Greek, the term θεός would have seemed rich in content since it signified the Deity, the Creator of heaven and earth, and also could render the ineffable sacred name, Yahweh, the covenantal God, and yet was capable of extremely diverse application, ranging from the images of pagan deities to the one true God of Israel, from heroic people to angelic beings. Whether one examines the Jewish or the Gentile use of the term θεός up to the end of the first century a.d., there is an occasional application of the term to human beings who perform divine functions or display divine characteristics.
B. The Use of θεός in the New Testament
Of the 1,315 uses of θεός in the NT, 78.4% are articular and 21.6% are anarthrous. No uniform distinction may be drawn between ὁ θεός and θεός, since (1) as a nomen rectum θεός is articular or anarthrous generally depending on the state of the preceding noun (the canon of Apollonius); (2) within single NT books the same preposition is found with both an articular and an anarthrous θεός, with apparently no difference of meaning; and (3) as a virtual proper name, θεός shares the imprecision with regard to articular use that characterizes proper names in general. Yet occasionally ὁ θεός and θεός are distinguishable, as when the anarthrous θεός emphasizes “godhood” (a theological distinction), or when the articular θεός is always found with certain words (e.g., ἐνώπιον) or phrases (e.g., κύριος ὁ θεός) or is generally found with personal pronouns (syntactical distinctions without theological import).
An analysis of the use of (ὁ) θεός as a subject or predicate with the verb εἶναι expressed or unexpressed shows that the NT writers prefer ὁ θεός (45 examples) over θεός (5) as the subject, but θεός (16) over ὁ θεός (8) as the predicate. Of these 24 predicative uses of (ὁ) θεός, the term is usually qualified if it is articular and often qualified if it is anarthrous. Generally, then, the NT avoids a statement such as “X is (ὁ) θεός” unless that θεός is further defined.
Each strand of the NT affords clear testimony that customarily θεός, whether articular or anarthrous, refers to the trinitarian Father. Four converging lines of evidence support this conclusion: (1) the frequent compound appellative θεὸς πατήρ where the second noun is in epexegetic apposition (e.g., Gal. 1:1); (2) the various trinitarian formulations where ὁ θεός must denote the Father (e.g., 2 Cor. 13:13); (3) the many places where ὁ θεός is distinguished from κύριος Ἰησοῦς Χριστός, as in epistolary salutations (e.g., James 1:1); and (4) uses of (ὁ) θεός in contexts where reference is made to fatherhood, sonship, regeneration, or brotherhood (e.g., John 6:32–33). Whenever (ὁ) θεός is found in the NT, we are to assume that ὁ πατήρ is the referent unless the context makes this sense impossible. Nowhere is it appropriate to render ὁ θεός by “the divine Essence” or “the Godhead.”
C. The Application of θεός to Jesus Christ
From the detailed exegetical analysis in chapters II–XII, I conclude that it is certain that the term θεός is applied to Jesus Christ in John 1:1 and John 20:28, very probable in Romans 9:5, Titus 2:13, Hebrews 1:8, and 2 Peter 1:1, probable in John 1:18, and possible but not likely in Acts 20:28, Hebrews 1:9, and 1 John 5:20 (see table 5). Other passages to which appeal is sometimes made include Matthew 1:23, John 17:3, Galatians 2:20, Ephesians 5:5, Colossians 2:2, 2 Thessalonians 1:12, and 1 Timothy 3:16. In none of these latter verses is a christological use of θεός at all likely. In subsequent discussion in this chapter I shall therefore assume that θεός is applied to Jesus in seven NT passages: John 1:1, John 1:18; John 20:28, Romans 9:5, Titus 2:13, Hebrews 1:8, and 2 Peter 1:1.
No NT writer makes the explicit assertion ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν θεός (or ὁ θεός). Nevertheless John has the absolute statement θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος (1:1), the dramatic collocation μονογενὴς θεός (1:18), which in expanded form would read μονογενὴς υἱὸς ὅς ἐστιν θεός, and the exclamation by which Thomas addressed Jesus, ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου (20:28), from which one may legitimately extrapolate two christological formulas: ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν κύριος (cf. the formula κύριος Ἰησοῦς) and ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν θεός (see chapter IV §C.2.a). In Romans 9:5 ὁ Χριστὸς ὁ ὢν θεός could be extrapolated from ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα, ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς κτλ. The writer to the Hebrews has God address his Son using the vocatival ὁ θεός (1:8), which implies ὁ υἱός ἐστιν θεός. And from Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 one may deduce that Ἰησοῦς Χριστός ἐστιν ὁ θεὸς καὶ σωτὴρ ἡμῶν.
Murray J. Harris, Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus (Eugene, OR: Wipf & Stock, 2008), 269–273.
By the way, searching Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus for theo* words having theo- prefix finds: theological, theology, theophoric, theodicy, & theologically. Theos is the transliteration of θεός (& "Theo" was a typo by @C Mc on January 30 as "Theo" does not appear in the 2008 republication).
Keep Smiling 😊
By the way, searching Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus for theo* words having theo- prefix finds: theological, theology, theophoric, theodicy, &theologically. Theos is the transliteration of θεός (& "Theo" was a typo by @C Mc on January 30 as "Theo" does not appear in the 2008 republication).
@Keep_Smiling_4_Jesus,
With verification, I will admit to my typo. Thanks in advance for pointing this out. CM