Is Jesus God?

Brethren,

Background: A correct understanding is necessary for a fruitful discussion --- There are two divergent theological positions, both embracing a monarchical idea:

First, dynamic monarchianism

• Paul of Samosata (Bishop of Antioch, ca. 260) as its chief proponent.
  • Suggested God’s wisdom dwelt with the man Jesus, “it did not form an independent person within Him.”
• Other dynamic monarchianists (e.g., Theodotus of Byzantium, 2nd century):
  • Jesus lived as other men until the time of His baptism when Christ came over Him as a power and became active within Him from that point onwards. 

The second was “Modalism”:

• Sabellius (ca. 215) as its chief proponent.
• Modalism emphasize God’s oneness. 
• They likened the relationship between the three Persons: The sun, its warmth and light.
• Sabellius noted: “God, with respect to hypostasis [underlying substance], is only one, but he has been personified in Scripture in various ways according to the current need.” 
• Both forms of monarchianism were condemned as heretical. 

In other words, God exists as Father, Son, and Spirit in different eras, but never as triune. Stemming from Modalism, believed that the Father suffered as the Son. The bases of the early church’s rejection of modalism were the following:

•  On the one hand, dynamic Monarchianism denied the church’s standard understanding at the time of the Son’s consubstantiality with the Father.
• On the other hand, modalism, (God is a single being who manifests himself in different ways), denied the doctrine of the three Persons, while both denied the doctrine of Son’s birth in eternity.

Modalism (i.e. Sabellianism, Noetianism, and Patripassianism):

• Taught that the three persons of the Trinity as different “modes” of the Godhead.
• One who believe such-- accepts that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are not distinct personalities, but different modes of God's self-revelation.
• A typical modalist approach is to regard God:
  • The Father in creation
  • The Son in redemption
  • The Spirit in sanctification

None of the above terms are found in the Bible like those below:

• Trinity, Trinitarianism, Successive modalism, Simultaneous modalism, Tritheism, Binitarianism, and Swedenborgianism. A fellow poster Mitchell said, they "represent some of the various ways people have tried to make sense of theology.
  • https://www.christiandiscourse.net/discussion/comment/570#Comment_570

Let's keep digging and studying. CM

SOURCES:

• Bengt Hägglund, History of Theology, trans. Gene J. Lund (St. Louis, MO: Concordia Publishing House, 2007), pp 71, 72

In my view, no.

I think the most prominent issue among the texts you cited is the meaning of the word "Lord." Here is my understanding as to the meaning of that word in each of the passages:

• Deuteronomy 7.17 -- "Lord [Jehovah]" is the God of Israel
• Matthew 12.9 -- "Lord of the Sabbath" is the master of, the authority over, the Sabbath
• John 20.27-28 -- Thomas calls Jesus is Lord (master) and God, the one text in your list that in my view contains a declaration of Jesus' being God, though it's not clear to me what role Jesus' resurrected state plays in Thomas' response
• Romans 10.9,11-13 -- Jesus as "Lord" is Jesus as master/authority in life, in whose name we find salvation
• Ephesians 4.4-5 -- The one "Lord" is the one master/authority. Ephesians 4.6 continues the list of "ones," the first item of which is one "God and Father of us all." It makes no sense for the passage to claim there is "one [God], one faith, one baptism, AND one God and Father of us all." Rhetorical symmetry, I suppose, would assert the existence of "one Lord, who is Jesus and God and Father of us all, one faith, and one baptism." But that's not what the text says.
• James 2.1 -- The Lord Jesus Christ is the master/authority
• Revelation 17.14 -- The "Lamb" is "Lord of all Lords and King of all kings," in which "Lord" is master/authority. Revelation 7.10 makes clear that the "Lamb" is NOT God.
• Revelation 19.16 -- The "Lord of lords" is master/authority. Revelation 19.14 says this "Lord of lords" will release the "fierce wrath of God, the Almighty," while giving no suggestion that the "Lord of lords" is also God. The language of the passage strongly suggests the "Lord of lords" is NOT God, but has the authority to release God's wrath (see also Revelation 19.17 for its reference to a banquet God has prepared, a reference whose mention of God gives no indication that the "Lord of lords" mentioned in the previous verse is the God who has prepared the banquet).

So from among the verses you cited, in my view only Thomas' exclamation in John 20 qualifies as a reference to Jesus as God. As Wolfgang points out, such is reported Thomas' view, but not as an eternal truth. Think about it: Why is there only one such declaration in the NT? It sounds like the most remarkable claim of faith EVER, yet it's made only once and by one person in the New Testament, wherein Peter, Paul, and Jesus himself refer to Jesus as clearly distinct from and other than God.

Indeed ... trinitarians are using a false accusation and turn it into the main pillar of their dogma ... 😉

Indeed, the man Jesus of Nazareth claimed to be the Son of God !!!

Now please note the plain truth:

Son of God IS NOT the same as God !

Jesus did NOT claim to be God (Whom Jesus repeatedly called his Father, and Who is in heaven)

A couple centuries before Jesus was born, Jewish scholars translated plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God (Hebrew Strong's # 430, plural of Hebrew Strong's #433) as singular theos θεὸς God (Greek Strong's # 2316) in 2,088 places, plural theos θεὸς God (Greek Strong's # 2316) in 186 places, and singular kyrios Κύριος Lord (Greek Strong's # 2962) in 121 places. Also Jewish scholars translated יהוה (Hebrew Strong's # 3068) as singular kyrios Κύριος Lord (Greek Strong's # 2962) in 6,076 places and singular theos θεὸς God (Greek Strong's # 2316) in 247 places. Scripture reading in Jewish synagogues said Adonai (Lord) instead of יהוה when Jesus was a Jewish Rabbi (teacher) on earth.

Question "Is Jesus God ?" is vague (answer depends on definition of God: e.g. if believe God only has one voice, then answer is NO)

Is Jesus all of plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God ? No

Is Jesus one voice of plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God ? Yes, the other two voices of plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God are The Father & Breath The Holy

When the only One Spiritual Being (plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God) existed BEFORE God created physical realm, Jesus experienced God's Glory (John 17:5) and God's Love (John 17:24).

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with אֱלֹהִים God, and the Word was אֱלֹהִים God. (John 1:1 LEB plus plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים for Jewish God). Spiritual quality of the Word was being el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God in the beginning.

What did Jesus command the man who had been set free from a legion of demons ? (implying identity of יהוה Lord אֱלֹהִים God)

And he did not permit him, but said to him, “Go to your home to your people and tell them all that the יהוה Lord has done for you, and that he has had mercy on you.” And he went away and began to proclaim in the Decapolis all that Jesus had done for him, and they were all astonished. (Mark 5:19-20)

“Return to your home and tell all that אֱלֹהִים God has done for you.” And he went away, proclaiming throughout the whole town all that Jesus had done for him. (Luke 8:39 LEB)

And as he was setting out on his way, one individual ran up and knelt down before him and asked him, “Good Teacher, what must I do so that I will inherit eternal life?” So Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone. You know the commandments: ‘Do not murder, do not commit adultery, do not steal, do not give false testimony, do not defraud, honor your father and mother.’ ” And he said to him, “Teacher, all these I have observed from my youth.” And Jesus, looking at him, loved him, and said to him, “You lack one thing: Go, sell all that you have, and give the proceeds to the poor—and you will have treasure in heaven—and come, follow me.” But he looked gloomy at the statement and went away sorrowful, because he had many possessions. (Mark 10:17-22 LEB)

And a certain ruler asked him, saying, “Good Teacher, by doing what will I inherit eternal life?” And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone. You know the commandments: ‘Do not commit adultery, do not murder, do not steal, do not give false testimony, honor your father and mother.’ ” And he said, “All these I have observed from my youth.” And when he heard this, Jesus said to him, “You still lack one thing: Sell all that you have, and distribute the proceeds to the poor—and you will have treasure in heaven—and come, follow me.” But when he heard these things he became very sad, because he was extremely wealthy. (Luke 18:18-23 LEB)

Thankful for wealthy ruler and Jesus discussion, which showed wealthy ruler loved personal riches on earth more than obeying אֱלֹהִים God's Words spoken through Jesus for treasure in heaven. Every person chooses what to believe & love most. Thus, question to wealthy ruler shows אֱלֹהִים God knew inside heart motivation of wealthy ruler so correctly questioned: "Why do you call me good? ..."

Koine Greek language has the definite article "the" (Greek Strong's # 3588), but does not have an indefinite article "a" so "a god" is an interpretation of phrase θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος (God was being The Word). Lack of the definite article before God shows quality assertion: The Word was being God along with plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God being more than The Word.

Koine Greek Language textbook used in many colleges includes John 1:1c exegetical insight in Chapter 6:

Keep Smiling 😊

The only Greek Feminine noun in John 1:1 is ἀρχή archē (Greek Strong's # 746). Theos θεός (Greek Strong's # 2316) is masculine.

The quoted Strong's Concordance compilation has conflated Feminine (# 2299) & Masculine (# 2316) words into one entry:

Searching Greek New Testament for <Lemma = lbs/el/θεά> (Feminine) finds one verse: Acts 19:27 reference to the great goddess Artemis.

Searching Lexham Hebrew Bible for <Root = lbs/he/אֱלֹהִים> WITHIN 7 WORDS (angel,messenger) does not find any verses where God is a title applied to any angel. Searching Greek New Testament for <Root = lbs/el/θεος> WITHIN 7 WORDS (angel, messenger) likewise does not find any verse where God is a title applied to any angel.

Intriguing interpretation does not match John 1:1 Scripture text. Spiritual quality of The Word (Jesus) was being The God in beginning while The God was being more than The Word => The Word (Jesus) part of plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God was with The Father & Breath The Holy.

Keep Smiling 😊

Greek article ἡ is feminine. Searching Greek New Testament for <Lemma = lbs/el/θεότης> finds one verse: of diety in Colossians 2:9 that is in the sentence numbered Colossians 2:8-12 (LEB) => Beware lest anyone take you captive through philosophy and empty deceit, according to human tradition, according to the elemental spirits of the world and not according to Christ, because in him all the fullness of deity dwells bodily, and you are filled in him, who is the head over every ruler and authority, in whom also you were circumcised with a circumcision not made by hands, by the removal of the body of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ, having been buried with him in baptism, in which also you were raised together with him through faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead.

Colossians 2:9 "in him the fullness of deity dwells bodily" is consistent with John 1:1 description about Spiritual quality of The Word (Jesus) was being The God in beginning while The God was being more than The Word => The Word (Jesus) part of plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God was with The Father & Breath The Holy.

Greek article ὁ is masculine => θεός is masculine. Found Acts 19:37 has Greek textual variants:

Note:: Acts 19:37 is the only Morph Search result from @D??F BEFORE 3 WORDS root:θεος in SBL Greek New Testament that had a feminine definite article for θεός. 2 Peter 1:3 has divine adjective (Greek Strong's # 2304) with feminine spelling to show qualification of the power (Greek Strong's # 1411 is feminine).

Keep Smiling 😊

I am amazed how folks apparently interpret Prov 8 as speaking about the term "wisdom" as being a living person. The passage is NOT about "a person" - a woman. It IS about "a thing, a quality" - wisdom.

For emphasis, the text employs the figure of speech Prosopopœia; or, Personification; a literary device by which things are represented as persons.

Pros´-ō-po-poe´-i-a (i.e., pros´-o-po-peé-ya). Greek, προσωποποιΐα, from πρόσωπον (prosopon), face or person, and ποιεῖν (poiein), to make. A figure by which things are represented or spoken of as persons; or, by which we attribute intelligence, by words or actions, to inanimate objects or abstract ideas.

The figure is employed when the absent are spoken of (or to) as present; when the dead are spoken of as alive; or when anything (e.g., a country) is addressed as a person. Personification is the English name for the figure. (Bullinger, E. W. (1898). Figures of speech used in the Bible (S. 861). London; New York: Eyre & Spottiswoode; E. & J. B. Young & Co.)

The passage is about the quality of wisdom, which is represented as a female person telling her story.

Wisdom was a quality which God possesses and which He always has had and which He used when He created .... no Jesus, no woman or anyone else was involved in process of creation. No "grammatical gender word studies" needed.

Observation about grammatical gender is every human body having all genders in variety of parts: (lacks correspondence with biological gender)

ear is neuter: Strong's Greek # 3775 οὖς [ous /ooce/]

eye is masculine: Strong's Greek # 3788 ὀφθαλμός [ophthalmos /of·thal·mos/]

foot is masculine: Strong's Greek # 4228 πούς [pous /pooce/]

hair is feminine: Strong's Greek # 2359 θρίξ, δέρρις [thrix /threeks/]

head is feminine: Strong's Greek # 2776 κεφαλή [kephale /kef·al·ay/]

mouth is neuter: Strong's Greek # 4750 στόμα [stoma /stom·a/]

 James Strong, Enhanced Strong’s Lexicon (Woodside Bible Fellowship, 1995).

Jewish audience reaction in John 10:33 The Jews answered him, “We are not going to stone you concerning a good deed, but concerning blasphemy, and because you, although you are a man, make yourself to be אֱלֹהִים God!” shows Jews understood John 10:30 as The Father and I are one יהוה

Jesus is/was the only human to live a Holy righteous life (never choose to sin against plural el-o-HEEM אֱלֹהִים God), which is consistent with Jeremiah 23:5-6 “Look, days are coming,” declares יהוה Yahweh, “when I will raise up for David a righteous branch, and he will reign as king, and he will achieve success, and he will do justice and righteousness in the land. In his days Judah will be saved, and Israel will dwell in safety, and this is his name by which he will be called: ‘יהוה Yahweh is our righteousness.’

If The Father and Jesus are One יהוה, then Proverbs 3:19 " יהוה Yahweh in wisdom founded the earth; he established the heavens in understanding." declares יהוה The Father and יהוה Jesus (The Word) in wisdom founded the earth, which is consistent with Jesus knowing אֱלֹהִים God's Glory (John 17:5) and אֱלֹהִים God's Love ❤️ before the foundation of the world.

Keep Smiling 😊