God's Name Found in the Greek Scriptures under θεόν (theon).

That is correct, but is irrelevant to your stated proposition; a proposition that is open, broad, and universal, without any limit placed upon it.

Your stated position on θεὸν centers entirely on this, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", and without limitation. 

Under that declaration "τὸν ἐν Δελφοῖσι θεὸν" (the Delphian god) and θεὸν λόγον (God-Logos) are perfectly acceptable; as are any other referent of θεὸν found in literature.

So, hypothetically, you might choose then to modify your statement to target scripture specifically; unfortunately however, whether modified or not, scripture is not at all your best friend regarding your proposition.

For, against that premise stands these two passages (Acts 19:37, 28:6); which, your proposition, when applied, will ultimately assert that Artemis and Paul are both then Jehovah(s). On this basis alone, the promoted thesis fails to be sustainable even with a hypothetical modification to it.

Finally then, you also lack any support for this contrived narrative within grammatical and lexical properties of the Greek language.

From the above, it can be stated that scripture, literature, and the Greek language, are all established witnesses against the error of this created narrative – "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.".   

I fully respect and agree with your sentiment that Jesus did not worship Artemis; and instead gave worship to his Father, God. 

In what lexical source do you find it stated that θεόν, itself, is a "superlative title" reserved for only Jehovah alone? 

It has been stated repeatedly throughout the course of our exchanges in this thread that there is a grammatical reason for the inflection of words within Greek. Pointedly, God (θεός) written in the accusative form (θεόν) is making known that the word is most likely functioning as an object of either a preposition or verb.

An example of this is a text you mentioned in the last post on page one of this thread – Jn. 1:18. In that text the accusative is used because the first instance of the word God is the object of the verb ἑώρακεν – perfectly in line with grammar for this language.    

At this time I believe a look at the OT via the LXX is warranted to see if there are instances where θεόν finds a referent in someone other than Jehovah, Himself

We have Moses in Ex. 4:16, 7:1.

We have Baal-berith in Judges 8:33.

We have Dagon in 1 Sam. 5:7.

We have Baal-zbub, god of Ekron in 2 Ki. 1:2-3, 6, 16.

We have Nebuchadnezzar in Judith 3:8.

• "so that all nations should worship Nebuchadnezzar alone and that all their dialects and tribes should call upon him as a god." (NRSVUE)

We have a foreign god in Ps. 44:20 (43:21 LXX). 

The above text is a wonderful lesson on how your assertion fails. "God" (Jehovah) in the first instance is the genitive θεοῦ, and the following "a foreign god" is θεὸν ἀλλότριον. In this same text there are two supernatural beings, Jehovah and a foreign god; where, Jehovah is not the referent of θεόν; rather, it is instead some foreign god who is the referent of θεόν.

We have a dead child in Wisd. of Sol. 14:15.

• "For a father, distressed by untimely grief, making an image of the child so quickly taken away, at that time honored the dead person as a god" (LES 2nd Edition)

We have a futile god (clay image) in Wisd. of Sol. 15:8.

• "And perversely he forms a fruitless god out of the same clay" (LES 2nd Edition)

We have multiple gods in Jonah 1:5.

We have an idol in Is. 44:10, 17.

These OT LXX texts above, along with two NT texts, Greek literature, and early christian writings, presented to you – all serve to invalidate your claim that θεόν will be used only if referring to Jehovah, and θεόν belongs to Jehovah alone without exception. It is noticeable also that your claim is completely lacking in grammar and dictionary support for θεόν being a "superlative title" reserved for Jehovah alone.

This is the response to the question I asked you, what lexical resource did you use that states θεόν is a "superlative title" reserved for for only Jehovah alone?

What is the intent of the above? God (θεόν) is the object of the preposition "with". You demonstrate a complete lack of regard for grammar as being a necessary component to make good on your proposition for θεόν.

A futile attempt to make this into me arguing "against Jesus Christ addressing His Father as the only true God"; my argument is against this stated proposition, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", and only that. θεόν is neither a "superlative title" nor is it exclusive to Jehovah alone.

As witnessed throughout this thread your proposition has not withstood the scrutiny given it. You have neither provided grammatical or lexical support for that assertion; and scripture, itself, shows your claim regarding θεόν is false. Not to mention early christian writings and Greek literature as also demonstrating the false nature of that same assertion. 

The support provided for your thesis, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone."; has been, and still is, non-existent.

What do you not comprehend about the nature of the accusative in Greek grammar? Further, what do you not comprehend about θεόν having in scripture other referents than Jehovah, and the impact that has on your stated position that θεόν only, and ever, refers to Jehovah?

In my view, and in plain language, your proposition is a complete bust.

The above is a perfect example of my point. The assertion you, yourself, make is that θεόν "refers to only to the True God" and that θεόν "is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone."; therefore, by your own standard which you still defend, Moses is Jehovah. 

Can you not comprehend what your own statement theologically implies? Any referent of θεόν, whether Jehovah or not, is, according to your assertion, truly Jehovah. Additionally, any writings translated into the Greek language where an occurrence of θεόν exists grammatically would, according to your premise, indicate that Jehovah is referenced. 

From this it occurs to me that what you have accomplished in this error is to impose a relativism of God using the Greek language. Your original intent was to use this proposition to attack the trinity doctrine regarding the Son, Jesus; but, have now instead made various referents of θεόν, Jehovah. The list so far includes, Jesus, Paul, Artemis, Delphian god, Moses, Baal, Dagon, Nebuchadnezzar, dead child, idol, clay image, foreign god, etc.

In my view, based on actual evidence presented, your stated position is in error and remains false.

Keep in mind that I am not arguing against terms and titles being used to express Yahweh's greatness, uniqueness, and incomprehensibleness; I am explicitly arguing against your assertion that θεόν carries some special meaning not given to θεός, and is only used when referring to Jehovah, and Jehovah alone. All of which has been proven false time and again throughout this thread.  

Now, the question I asked was the following:

What lexical resource did you use that states θεόν is a "superlative title" reserved for only Jehovah? 

What is meant by the phrase lexical resource is a Greek lexicon providing definitions given to the dictionary word form entry. It will, in addition, also be interesting to find out which lexicon you used having θεόν as a separate word entry from its dictionary form θεός.

It has been demonstrated within scripture itself there are a number of people, and gods, who are all referents of θεὸν in addition to Yahweh; and, that number of other referents besides Yahweh increases dramatically once outside of scripture. In preceding posts a number of those texts were provided establishing that θεὸν in its usage is not at all reserved for Jehovah alone.

How exactly does the above relate to your asserted position regarding θεόν? 

No, I disagree, Jesus in Jn.17:1 addresses his Father as "πάτερ" stating "the hour has come" and requesting of Him to "glorify your Son". It is in Jn.17:3 that Jesus states the following, "And this is eternal life", defining eternal life by this statement, "that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ", which is not an address; but rather, a declaration.

You ought to examine the Greek text of Jn. 1:49 again as it is the genitive θεοῦ. 

"ἀπεκρίθη αὐτῷ Ναθαναήλ· ῥαββί, σὺ εἶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, σὺ βασιλεὺς εἶ τοῦ Ἰσραήλ."

Alright, according to your response you're not aware of any lexicon stating what you have asserted from the beginning in this thread regarding θεὸν, nor did you consult any lexicon. 

The assertion then is solely derived from your understanding of Ps. 83:18; Jn. 17:3 and then importing those thoughts onto the accusative form of θεός creating an unsupported artificial rule of grammar, and definition, that has become your asserted claim regarding θεὸν.

Did you not think to search for all uses of θεὸν in both the NT and LXX to verify the resulting data would corroborate your initial thought prior to making this assertion found below? (this will be revisited at the end)

• "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.".

That assertion as written is dead on arrival, so to speak, for it completely fails in all areas. It is failing on grammatical and lexical grounds regarding θεός in its accusative form. In the interest of logic it also fails when tested by using either scripture or non-scriptural texts.

Scripture is quite clear that in addition to Yahweh many others are also the referent of θεόν.  Ex. 4:16, 7:1; Judges 8:33; 1 Sam. 5:7; 2 Ki. 1:2-3, 6, 16; Judith 3:8; Ps. 44:20; Wisd. 14:15, 15:8; Jonah 1:5; Is. 44:10, 17; Acts 19:37, 28:6. (NRSV) 

Need I also remind you of the "Delphian God" (τὸν ἐν Δελφοῖσι θεὸν) and other gods being the referent of θεὸν in Greek literature. Even in early church period writing you can find τὸν Θεὸν Λόγον (God the Word, God-Logos) where Jesus is the referent. 

By the design of your θεόν rule, it being both comprehensive and universal in scope, logically it makes each and every referent of θεόν within scripture, or outside of scripture, Jehovah. There is no exception clause written into your assertion. 

The following section provides proof that the intent of your assertion was designed so that every one of those 148 θεόν occurrences have Jehovah in sight – no exception. Had this premise truly been tested we wouldn't be having this exchange. 

Revisiting the 148:

At the conclusion of your initial post you stated the following: "Inserting God's Name doesn't flow smoothly in all 148 Greek occurrences.". From this it must be understood that you did indeed look at each of the 148 occurrences and confirm they refer to Jehovah. 

Continuing on, if Jehovah doesn't "flow smoothly" you then suggest "inserting the meaning of the title θεόν" recognized as either "the only true Supreme One" or "the only true Self-Existent One" which then gives a "deeper understanding" to the text. 

From what you have asserted above there can be no doubt that all 148 occurrences are without exception referring to Jehovah; and therefore, Jehovah, or one of your two suggested meanings, may be used in place of θεόν.

In light of the above I want to ask how that worked out when you read read Acts 19:37, 28:6 replacing θεόν with Jehovah, or "the only true Supreme One", or even "the only true Self-Existent One" – was some "deeper understanding" attained?

For myself this is where the story ends; as, I believe the reasons have been fully expressed why, and on what grounds, the assertion you have put forward is to be rejected.

Regarding address in Jn. 17:

There is no disagreement with Jesus; but instead, a disagreement with your understanding of what an address is.

The address occurs in Jn. 17:1, not Jn. 17:3, where Jesus first speaks, saying πάτερ, a direct address (vocative). Does the text of Jn. 17:1 you are reading have "the only true God, the hour has come" as the written text? Most likely not.

Who, exactly, is arguing that Jn. 17:3 is not true? 

So, you are in agreement that ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ is genitive in Jn. 1:49 and not accusative as I brought to your attention in my last post. By the way, there is no "SON of θεὸν" as you put it; but, also in the same vernacular there is SON of θεοῦ.

But, you go on to say, "which makes him (a god)", according to your particular belief system; and then, this strange statement, "as in the only-begotten god which is in the genitive sense.".

Jn. 1:18 which you reference above reads μονογενὴς θεὸς (nominative) and of course Θεὸν (accusative) is in the text; but, no genitive θεοῦ. So, would you care to explain what your meaning is regarding "only-begotten god which is in the genitive sense."? A citation from a Greek grammar referring to this will also be helpful.

From this response it is apparent that you are beyond having reasonable faculties able to comprehend the failure of your assertion and concede that it is an abject failure; which, I might add, pertains solely to your words alone.

There is no argument being made against the words of Jesus. But, there is an argument against the assertion you make regarding θεὸς in the accusative – your written words – solidly disputed throughout this thread. 

Those specific words you have written are the following: "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.".

And "Inserting God's Name doesn't flow smoothly in all 148 Greek occurrences.", try "inserting the meaning of the title θεόν" which is "the only true Supreme One" or "the only true Self-Existent One" to achieve a "deeper understanding".

I remind you that you assert all, without exception, 148 occurrences are referring to Jehovah alone. Do you not understand your own words? Can you not comprehend the error of your statements when faced with Acts 19:37, 28:6, two of the 148 occurrences? If that is not enough the LXX contributes far more OT examples which prove your quoted statements are fallacious (cf. Ex. 4:16, 7:1; Judges 8:33; 1 Sam. 5:7; 2 Ki. 1:2-3, 6, 16; Judith 3:8; Ps. 44:20; Wisd. 14:15, 15:8; Jonah 1:5; Is. 44:10, 17).

It is understandable that you weren't aware of this textual data destroying your position; because, you have affirmed that there was no effort made on your part to verify and validate your proposition as being true within the NT text; let alone, the LXX text, and Greek literature. 

I maintain that careless work with a distorted vision of grammar leads to this propagation of error which you continue to pretend is true; and, all the while evidently oblivious to the ramifications brought about by said assertion.      

Ah, but it is. Among others, even Arius, himself, will use Θεὸν Λόγον in reference to Jesus. Before you write in reply, but that's not in scripture, please be reminded there is no limit placed on the scope of where θεόν can be found in your asserted proposition. What you have written below is a blanket statement.

And, in the course of writing it needs to be said once again, θεός is θεόν, and θεόν is θεός; just as God is God, or god is god. The dictionary definition for θεός applies to θεόν. Do you have a lexicon with θεόν having its own headword entry? 

The rest of your posted reply has no bearing on the questions put to you in my last post; and certainly, are not responses directed towards the issues inherent in, and surrounding, your assertion outlined throughout this thread. 

In summary, the research data gathered provides an objective look at θεόν in its use inside, and outside, of scripture; and is found to contradict the universal and comprehensive nature of your asserted claim. 

Quite simply, your statement is to be rejected on the basis of grammatical, lexical, usage data, and logical grounds; all of which have been addressed in my posts.

Therein lies the difficulty you face. If, "θεόν is a superlative title" as you say; then, provide a citation from a lexicon stating that about θεόν.

And, should you somehow succeed in that endeavor it will still not release you from the implication of your stated proposition – that θεόν refers only to Jehovah alone. The fatal flaw being that Yahweh isn't the only and exclusive referent of θεόν in scripture; let alone, outside of it. The results of that are well documented throughout this thread need I remind you.

You're welcome to your view on that; but, it must be stated that trinity doctrine is not the subject of this discussion. (see below for what is the subject of discussion)

Will you provide even one text to support this claim you have made where θεόν has been replaced by θεός "many times" in the LXX? 

I have not made the claim that "all gods are the same"; my statement is that the term θεός, and its inflected forms, are used of any God or god. Even you used to understand that – see your first post – "θεός (theos) can apply to God, a god, or gods and is shared with many.". What is missing in you words cited above is that this also applies to the inflected forms as well.

We are not discussing "Adonai" or any assumed deception alleged within the LXX. 

Which refers to this statement I made:

• And, in the course of writing it needs to be said once again, θεός is θεόν, and θεόν is θεός; just as God is God, or god is god.

If, what I stated "doesn't hold any water" as you say; then, please cite a lexicon which disagrees with that statement. 

I'll put this in very simple terms using English to demonstrate what you continually fail to comprehend regarding θεός and its inflections, specifically the accusative.

God in the following example is the same entity:

God (θεός, subject) saw (verb) you (object) vs. You (subject) saw (verb) God (θεόν, object). 

And, on what textual grounds do you assert that θεόν was removed? Provide substance. I have to ask at this point what grammatical resource do you have access to that leads you to believe θεόν, and not θεοῦ, would be the reading? 

Moving on to the text, in certain LXX editions, "heaven" (οὐρανὸν) is written in place of "God" (El) reading "stars of heaven"; however, in the Gottingen LXX, it reads "stars of God" (ἄστέρων τοῦ θεοῦ) which is genitive, and not accusative. 

Glad to know you're concerned about that; however, we're not discussing Satan's work. The entire focus is on your proposition and that only. (see below)

You have devised this assertion having no exceptions and no limits placed upon it; thereby, making any and all referents of θεόν, Jehovah. Scripture, had you taken the time to research, in its totality contradicts your claim regarding θεόν as it is found in both the OT Greek and NT. Additionally, your assertion is also founded on an underlying error regarding Greek grammar.

So, it is upon these grounds given above that this proposition of yours should be fully rejected. There has been no change to this. 

@Brother Rando

I want to revisit this statement from your previous post.

I asked you to provide the texts where you say specifically θεόν was removed and replaced with θεός "Many times" in the LXX. That, in itself, shouldn't pose any difficulty for you since you have to have that information at hand to make such a claim.

I've addressed your confused misconception of "Not all gods are the same as you falsely claim" in my previous post which I'll now restate again so that you can move on from that.

I have not made the claim that "all gods are the same". My statement is that the term θεός, and its inflected forms, are used of any God or god. 

Even you used to understand that. See your first post where you state the following, "θεός (theos) can apply to God, a god, or gods and is shared with many.".

So, whatever examples you believe you have given, based on your lack of understanding, are entirely outside this discussion. A discussion centered on the claim, made by yourself, concerning the accusative form of θεός being reserved for Jehovah alone, and only for Jehovah. A claim that has been shown to be false time and again throughout this thread.

The term Elohim, and its use, is not relevant to the proposition you have asserted regarding θεόν; which, is the only area of discussion. 

The use of Deut. 6:13 and your chart image are both lacking relevance to what is being discussed as stated previously. We are not discussing your theory on alleged deception within the LXX; we are however, should you have forgotten, solely discussing this indefensible claim you have presented over and over.

A statement that is false. You might wish to remedy that by a re-write using the following: most instances of θεόν in scripture refer to Yahweh – which is correct and true.

In summary, your post has failed to provide any legitimate support for the narrative you wish to perpetuate. It is however full of irrelevant material injected to deflect the course of discussion along with utilizing one assertion to prop up a previous assertion; all of which, do not equate to any argument of substance for your position. 

You simply provide no hard data which is understandable given that your proposition relies only upon your own interpretation of grammar applied to the text of scripture which is at complete odds with both scripture and grammar.

The obsession with θεόν as being its own separate entity apart from the nominative θεός in your mind is, in my view, such that the accusative form θεόν has become an idol of worship to you.

Whatever you're on about is not relevant to the assertion you wrote, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", which is under discussion.  θεόν is Greek, the Tetragram is Hebrew. Your assertion is specific to the Greek accusative form of θεός, nothing more.

Yes, that is the title you gave this thread; but, your written word regarding θεόν, which is the item of discussion we are having, has been shown to be false. If you're not sure about the status of that; I'll provide a recap.

You make the above assertion that θεόν refers to only God and is given as a title to Jehovah alone. Speaking of the 148 occurrences in the NT you provide two suggestions should God's name not flow smoothly when reading. Those suggestions being "the only true Supreme One" and "the only true Self-Existent One". 

Let me ask you, do all 148 NT occurrences of θεόν have Yahweh as the referent? No, two texts have someone other then Yahweh as referent – Artemis (Acts 19:37) and Paul (Acts 28:6).

That data alone shows your proposition to be false; since, you have stated, θεόν only refers to God and is for Jehovah alone.

One also might want to know how that proposition fairs with the LXX text?

Here again, not so well, as these following texts all have someone other than Yahweh as a referent (Ex. 4:16, 7:1; Judges 8:33; 1 Sam. 5:7; 2 Ki. 1:2-3, 6, 16; Judith 3:8; Ps. 44:20; Wisd. 14:15, 15:8; Jonah 1:5; Is. 44:10, 17).

By count, seventeen texts within scripture all dispute the veracity of what you have written. So far, Artemis, Paul, Moses, Baal-berith, Dagon, Baal-zebub, Nebuchadnezzar, image, idol, and sailor's individual gods, have been referents of θεόν.

Outside of scripture there are multitudes of those who are referents of θεόν. And of course highlighted from past posting is the now famous Delphian god; but, lest it be forgotten, any god in Greek literature may well be a referent. We may even say, that Jesus has also been the referent of θεόν a number of times. (read earlier posts for examples)

It is quite clear from the data presented above that what has been written below is false.

And, before you write, remember that what you have asserted has no limiting, or exclusions, placed upon it. It is a universal blanket statement – θεόν refers to no one else but Jehovah, and Jehovah alone – that is the claim of your assertion. 

Unless, you want to assert that Jehovah is in fact each and every one of the listed referents detailed above in this post; though, that will not be an exhaustive list given the magnitude of Greek literature. 

Having written such a demonstrably faulty proposition I don't doubt your desire to escape the result you have made for yourself. When you have exhausted all avenues of deflection and distraction; then, in my view, you should concede the error and re-write your statement to reflect the truth.

It is as though you either don't realize the implications of what you have written; or, you don't remember that you even wrote this assertion. "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.".

You continue to want to make your words as mine – they are not mine; they are yours – and then you proceed to argue against your own assertion as if it were mine.

It is your assertion's wording that has the consequence of making each and every referent of θεόν no matter where it is stated to be referring to only Jehovah alone.

How do you not comprehend the meaning of simple English as you have written it? That statement as you have written it is without exception – no loophole.

Let me ask you, when θεός is used in scripture referring to Jehovah does that mean He is not the one true God? Or, is He somehow inferior by comparison to when θεόν refers to Him? I'd like to read your response this.

I will remind you to provide proof supporting that from a Greek lexicon. The only person dealing in grammatical theory is you.

The use of θεός where manuscript (what is written in the text) and lexeme are the same.

The use of θεόν (manuscript – what is written in the text) showing it is an inflection of its lexeme θεός.

Both θεός and θεόν are given the same Greek Strong's number having the same definition.

I haven't claimed that they are. What I stated, for the third time now, is that θεός or θεόν is used in reference to any God or god. θεός, including its accusative form θεόν, is the term used for, in English, God or god. Can you not comprehend what a Greek lexicon states?

No theory involved, and not at all. Again, θεός may be used of anyone as it is simply a term for our English word God, or god. 

In your example, what distinguishes the two from one another is that one is Jesus, and the other is Satan; two distinct individuals each having a proper name. Personal identity is not determined by the use of θεός. 

Now, on the other hand, if you were to say both Jesus and Satan are, in your vernacular, called θεόν (a complete Greek grammar mishap); then, according to your assertion, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", they will both have to be Jehovah.

I hope that is now clear to you.

You have a incredible capacity for not understanding what I've written; but, also you lack any nominal understanding of what you have written in your following assertion. "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone."

What does your assertion state emphatically about the use of θεόν? It states that θεόν only refers to "the True God" (using Jn. 17:3 as the example); and that the title θεόν is "given to Jehovah alone.". 

From that central point, are you really unable to comprehend the resulting consequence of your statement realizing that Jehovah is not the only referent in scripture of θεόν?  

Ex. 4:16, 7:1; Judges 8:33; 1 Sam. 5:7; 2 Ki. 1:2-3, 6, 16; Judith 3:8; Ps. 44:20; Wisd. 14:15, 15:8; Jonah 1:5; Is. 44:10, 17; Acts 19:37, 28:6. 

I'll supply the texts of Judith and Wisdom since the LEB doesn't hyperlink to them.

• "so that all nations should worship Nebuchadnezzar alone and that all their dialects and tribes should call upon him as a god." (Judith 3:8)
• "For a father, distressed by untimely grief, making an image of the child so quickly taken away, at that time honored the dead person as a god" (Wisd. of Sol. 14:15)
• "And perversely he forms a fruitless god out of the same clay" (Wisd. of Sol. 15:8)

Those texts, referenced above, according to your assertion make each and every one, as a referent of θεόν, to be Jehovah. Why? Because you stated in your assertion that θεόν only refers to "the True God", Jehovah, and only "Jehovah alone"!

Your following reply is made in reference to what I wrote as a hypothetical illustration regarding your complete misunderstanding of not only θεός; but, also the total disregard for the theological implications brought about by your assertion having to do with θεόν.

What I wrote is the following:

• Now, on the other hand, if you were to say both Jesus and Satan are, in your vernacular, called θεόν (a complete Greek grammar mishap); then, according to your assertion, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", they will both have to be Jehovah.

I never said you did; I said, "if you were to say". Are you completely unable to follow the train of thought in what is written? 

Again, for the nearly one millionth time, your assertion is wide open; it is made without restriction, and without exception, meaning that any corpus of writing, or referent, is fair game. For instance, the Delphian god in Greek literature.

It has been documented in this thread numerous times that Jesus is a referent of θεόν. Do I need to keep posting those citations for you to remember? 

• "Καὶ εἰς κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν, τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ, τὸν ἐξ αὐτοῦ πρὸ πάντων τῶν αἰώνων γεγεννημένον θεὸν λόγον,"
• "ἀλλʼ ἕνα καὶ τὸν αὐτὸν υἱὸν καὶ μονογενῆ, θεὸν λόγον, κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χοιστόν"  

By many of your recent responses I have to wonder if you are the actual author of the assertion made in the opening post of this thread. At times in your writing it seems there is a total unawareness that it is your own assertion and not someone else's.

My suggestion to whomever wrote that assertion in the first post would be to re-write it to reflect the truth; namely, within scripture θεόν refers mostly to Jehovah.

I'm certain the above doesn't suit the purpose for the assertion as it was intended; but, truth is of more importance.

@Brother Rando

Your entire response to my post is one that demonstrates the propensity in your writing to deflect and divert from the obvious flaw(s) that you cannot defend.

As an example of that is the fact that we are not discussing the occasions when θεὸν refers to Yahweh; but, only those occasions when θεὸν is not referring to Yahweh. How is it possible that you fail to understand that point?

Your initial claim regarding the 148 occurrences in the NT, "Inserting God's Name doesn't flow smoothly in all 148 Greek occurrences. For example, in John 17:3 inserting the meaning of the title θεόν (theon) not only fits, but gives deeper understanding.", shows you accept that Artemis and Paul (Acts 19:37, 28:6) will have to be considered as Jehovah. 

There are 146 occurrences of θεόν, not 148, where Yahweh is the referent – something you don't seem to grasp or acknowledge as contrary to your asserted proposition – "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.".

So, as a reminder, what does your assertion state emphatically about the use of θεόν? It states that θεόν only refers to "the True God" (using Jn. 17:3 as the example); and that the title θεόν is "given to Jehovah alone.". 

Your proposition as stated is in error due to its neglect in properly stating factual data that is found in the OT and NT contrary to your assertion – making that assertion as it is stated false. 

Seventeen texts in scripture have θεόν referring to someone else than Jehovah; and those texts, according to your assertion, make each and every one, as a referent of θεόν, to be Jehovah. Why? Because you stated in your assertion that θεόν only refers to "the True God", Jehovah, and only "Jehovah alone"!

What you claim below is false for all the reasons given throughout this thread.

What you can state in truth is that most uses of θεόν in scripture have Yahweh as the referent.

It is not my claim, it is what your own assertion logically claims!!!!!! And that claim, as you have expressed it, states that θεόν only and always refers to Jehovah; which, is not the case and therefore your claim, as stated, is false!!!

It is your asserted proposition, by the way, that makes those other seventeen referents of θεόν into Jehovah!!!!!

Regarding the "superlative title" claim for θεόν; provide one instance from a Greek lexicon that states the accusative form of θεός is itself a "superlative title" belonging only to Jehovah. You have never done so because you have stated that this proposition was never based upon linguistic sources; but rather, based upon your own individual interpretation of Jn. 17:3 in light of Ps. 83:18.

There is, to my knowledge, no linguistic support that θεόν apart and independent from its lexeme θεός is to be designated a "superlative title" for Yahweh. And, I'm certain if there were such support it would have been reported long ago in your posting.

The word God, itself, is the so-named category of a type of ontological Being – supernatural Being – as opposed to our own human or any other type of Being for that matter.

It, God, or god, is a common noun and as stated above it is descriptive of a type of Being. It will be the context surrounding that term which usually informs one as to which God, or god, is being referenced. 

I'll ask once again having received no response to this, I'm sure, an uncomfortable question asked of you much earlier in this thread.

Starting from this first assertion made having no exception on referent, or limit placed on the corpus used. (all quotes from the first post in this thread)

Followed by this statement which is asserting that all 148 occurrences refer to Jehovah (which is not the case).

Going further you state that the meaning you personally have assigned to θεόν should Jehovah not flow smoothly may be replaced with the following approved by yourself choices, "the only true Supreme One", or "the only true Self-Existent One".

On reading these two texts of Acts 19:37, 28:6, included within the 148 occurrences of θεόν which you state refer to Jehovah alone; I would like to know how your theological understanding of the one true God was deepened by the reading of those two texts?

Yes, the question asked above is somewhat tongue-in-cheek; however, at that point the realization that your loved assertion is faulty in its composition where it makes all referents of θεόν, in or outside scripture, to be Jehovah – in this NT case Artemis and Paul. How exactly did you miss such an apparent fault and then continue to propagate this false nonsense?

If the ability to grasp that it is your assertion, as written, if it is true, is the only one asserting that not only Yahweh, but all others who also are the referent of θεόν, then must, by that self-same assertion, be Jehovah. 

As an important side note, we are not arguing about whether you, or even I, personally believe every referent of θεόν is Yahweh; but, your assertion, if true, does empirically believe and states that – which is the weakness it suffers from.

Most likely it was not checked at all to verify if every instance of θεόν in scripture did indeed refer to Yahweh; but, that is, in itself, no excuse to keep on promoting a false ideology after it has been demonstrated from scripture, and outside of scripture, to be patently false.

Most, is the operative word regarding θεόν – most of the time Yahweh is the referent of θεόν in scripture – that is true as stated. 

There is a paramount need for you to correct your assertion's wording to reflect the truth of scripture, as seventeen examples combined (OT and NT) stand against that same assertion.

Other than yourself, no one has claimed what you state above. It is only from the unorthodox view held by yourself that θεόν is somehow a separate and independent linguistic entity from θεός making the term God, or god, into a language absurdity.

Again, we are not arguing over whether "these gods are equal or even co-equal to θεόν", a statement which is itself linguistically nonsensical; we are, however, discussing how it is that your assertion by its wording logically makes every referent of θεόν, Jehovah.

What does your assertion say: it says, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone."; so, in the NT both Artemis and Paul are each referents of the accusative θεόν. (emphasis mine)

Neither you, nor I, believe either Artemis or Paul are Jehovah, which is not under debate; but, the above assertion along with this statement of yours, "Inserting God's Name doesn't flow smoothly in all 148 Greek occurrences." (NT occurrences only), logically makes them Jehovah. Are you simply unable to follow the line of thought expressed by those words?

This has no relevance to our discussion.

First, the above is an example of the continual misunderstanding displayed by yourself regarding the inflected forms within the Greek language. Perhaps the following will help you to better understand the reason for those inflected forms within Greek.

• "Θεόν is the accusative singular form of θεός. Often people are confused by the fact that Greek nouns change form, depending upon their grammatical usage in a sentence. Greek is an inflected language, and its nouns are declined, meaning they take a different form when they are subject, object, indirect object, plural, etc. These changes in forms do not impact the actual meaning of the noun itself, only how it is being used in a particular sentence." (White, James R. The Forgotten Trinity: Recovering the Heart of Christian Belief. Accordance electronic edition, version 1.0. Bloomington: Bethany House Publishers, 1998.)

Second, while neither Jesus, or Satan, are the referent of the accusative θεόν within scripture; Jesus is a referent of θεόν outside of it. Though, linguistically there is no difference in meaning to be derived from an inflected form. θεός and θεόν are simply God, or god.

Before replying that the following excerpts are not found within scripture; let me remind you in advance that no limiting to a particular corpus has ever been imposed by your θεόν assertion. Therefore, any literature is fair game; which, has also been stated multiple times throughout this thread.

Arius writing:

"Καὶ εἰς κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν, τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ, τὸν ἐξ αὐτοῦ πρὸ πάντων τῶν αἰώνων γεγεννημένον θεὸν λόγον," (Kelly, J. N. D. (2006). Early Christian Creeds (Third Edition, p. 189). Continuum.)

From Chalcedon:

"ἀλλʼ ἕνα καὶ τὸν αὐτὸν υἱὸν καὶ μονογενῆ, θεὸν λόγον, κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χοιστόν"  (Schaff, P. (1890). The Creeds of Christendom, with a History and Critical Notes: The Greek and Latin Creeds, with Translations (Vol. 2, pp. 62–63). Harper & Brothers.)

Ignatius writing:

"Δοξάζω Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν τὸν θεὸν" Smyrnaeans 1:1 (Brannan, R. (2011). Apostolic Fathers Greek-English Interlinear. Lexham Press.)

But, truly, if θεόν, as you state, is a "superlative title"; then, its nominative lexeme θεός is also a "superlative title".  The reverse will also be true if θεός is not a "superlative title"; then, neither is θεόν a "superlative title". 

That is recognized, though not fully, in this statement of yours found in the first post of this thread, "The second Greek title θεός (theos) can apply to God, a god, or gods and is shared with many.". That applies to the accusative form (θεόν) as well.

Finally, should you wish to disagree with the above statement I would suggest providing legitimate lexicon support for that disagreement.

Completely lacking relevance to our subject being discussed.

Same response, no relevance whatsoever.

I can assure you we are not the same person.   

Remember Koine Greek does NOT have indefinite articles "a" & "an". Koine Greek does have "another" adjectives that John did not use in John 1:1-5. The phrase "a god" is injecting untrustworthy Watchtower Society faith belief interpretation into translation, which is a form of deception. How could "a god" create ALL things (not one thing came into being without The Word) ?

Recognizing inflected nature of Koine Grrek nouns results in a better translation of "Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. =>

• In the beginning was The Word, and The Word was with The Supreme Divinity, and The Word was Supreme Divinity.

The verb "was" lacks English fullness of Koine Greek imperfect verb tense primarily expressing continous kind of action (with indicative mood showing secondary past time),

• In the beginning continously was The Word, and The Word continously was with The Supreme Divinity, and The Word was continously Supreme Divinity.

The first class for learning Koine Greek in a number of colleges & universities uses a textbook that has John 1:1c explanation in Chapter 6:

Question for @Brother Rando (& Watchtower Society): what Greek words should have been used to express spiritual quality of ὁ λόγος (The Word) continuously was fully אלהים God ? (while full Holy אלהים God completeness was more than ὁ λόγος).

FWIW: my resource copy came from Logos Bible Study software while @Pages February 21 resource copy came from Accordance. Over 15 years ago had my decision for Logos Bible Study to be the only one for my purchases going forward (as Logos offers lots more resources for a digital library). My favorite Logos feature is visual filters combining thousands of search results for simultaneous display, which quickly allows range of verbal expression to be seen in a Scripture passage.

Keep Smiling 😊