God's Name Found in the Greek Scriptures under θεόν (theon).

I don't disagree that the accusative θεόν carries the meaning of God, or god; which God, or god, is then determined from the context that θεόν is found within. 

The accusative form, such as θεόν, serves the primary grammatical purpose of denoting that it is performing as an object of a preposition or as an object of a verb – not that it has some assumed theological meaning attached to it. 

I do then disagree with this proposed theory presented above; where a Greek accusative, used to show what function the word is preforming in a sentence, is somehow turned into a "superlative title" for "Jehovah alone". 

If this were truly the case then it would be required grammatically that the nominative form θεός be included also in this "superlative title" for "Jehovah alone" as well; since, θεόν is θεός in the accusative.  

Overall, the accusative form of θεός (θεόν), just as the nominative θεός itself, or the genitive θεοῦ, even the vocative θεέ, are all grammatically, and theologically, agnostic in the Greek language as to which God, or god, it is used of.  

I did set aside the time to look at each individual instance of θεόν in the NT, and the following is a breakdown from that look.

Prepositional object:

Mt. 27:43; Lk. 1:16, 4:8, 12:21; Jn. 1:1-2, 13:3, 14:1, 20:17; Acts 4:24, 12:5, 14:15, 15:19, 20:21, 24:15-16, 26:18; Ro. 4:2, 5:1, 8:7, 27, 10:1, 15:6, 17, 30; 2Cor. 3:4, 7:9-11, 13:7; Eph. 4:24; Phil. 4:6; 1Thes. 1:8-9; 1Ti. 5:5; Heb. 2:17, 5:1, 6:1, 8:10; 1Pe. 1:21, 3:5, 21, 4:6, 5:2; 1Jn. 3:21; Re. 12:5, 13:6

Appositive:

Mt. 4:7, 10, 22:37; Mk. 12:30; Lk. 1:16, 4:8, 12, 10:27; Jn. 8:41, 17:3

Accusative of reference:

Mk. 5:7

Predicative accusative:

Jn. 10:33

Predicative accusative of infinitive:

Acts 28:6

Subject of infinitive:

Heb. 6:18

Secondary object:

Lk. 20:37

Direct object:

Mt. 5:8, 9:8, 15:31; Lk. 1:64, 2:13, 20, 28, 5:25-26, 7:16, 29, 13:13, 17:15, 18:2, 4, 43, 23:40, 47, 24:53; Jn. 1:18, 5:18, 11:22, 21:19; Acts 2:47, 3:8-9, 4:21, 6:11, 10:2, 22, 46, 11:18, 13:16, 26, 15:10, 16:14, 25, 18:7, 21:20; Ro. 1:21, 28, 2:23, 3:11, 8:28; 1Cor. 1:21, 6:20, 8:3; 2Cor. 1:23, 9:13; Gal. 1:10, 24, 4:8-9; 1Thes. 4:5, 8; 2Thes. 1:8, 2:4; Tt. 1:16; 1Pe. 2:12, 17; 4:16; 1Jn. 4:6-8, 10, 12, 20-21, 5:2; 2Jn. 9; 3Jn. 11; Re. 14:7, 16:11, 21

Direct object of infinitive:

Mk. 2:12; Lk. 19:37; Acts 11:17, 17:27, 18:13, 19:37; Ro. 15:9

Quite recognizable from the above breakdown is that the majority use of this particular accusative is as an object of a preposition, or verb – just as it would be with any other accusative used in the Greek language.

(A quick disclaimer, as some difference of opinion may be held on certain classifications. For example, I categorized certain uses as Appositive even though it is the object of the preposition in those texts. This was due mainly to the prepositional clause being itself appositional to κύριον, πατέρα, and σὲ in those same texts.) 

I'd like to look at this assertion, "θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", more closely at this time.

The foremost issue with this specific premise is that in reality it fails. Within scripture the context of Acts 19:37 applies θεὸν to the goddess Artemis. This, most recently, was brought to your attention by @KS4J without any engagement at all with that issue on your part.

Another NT reference to include with the above occurrence is Acts 28:6 where θεόν is applied to Paul.

In light of your "θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone." statement; the question has to be asked, how do you account for Artemis and Paul receiving this "superlative title" reserved for "Jehovah alone"? 

Next up is the issue in Greek literature having many, many uses of θεὸν. Here are a few such examples.

From Herodotus:

Herodotus Histories 1.19.2:

   to question the god about his sickness.

   πέμψαντα τὸν θεὸν ἐπειρέσθαι περὶ τῆς νούσου.

Herodotus Histories 1.50.1:

   the Delphian god with great sacrifices.

   μεγάλῃσι τὸν ἐν Δελφοῖσι θεὸν ἱλάσκετο

And:

   win the aid of the god

   ἐλπίζων τὸν θεὸν

(Herodotus. (1920). Herodotus, with an English translation by A. D. Godley. Harvard University Press.)

From Plato:

Plato's Republic 379c:

   and not in God.

   ἀλλʼ ουʼ τὸν θεόν

(Plato. (1969). Plato in Twelve Volumes & 6 translated by Paul Shorey (Vol. 5). Cambridge, MA, Harvard University Press; London, William Heinemann Ltd.)

From Xenophon:

Apology of Socrates 13

   in regard to God’s foreknowledge

   προειδέναι γε τὸν θεὸν

(Xenophon. (1979). Xenophon in Seven Volumes, 4. Harvard University Press, Cambridge, MA; William Heinemann, Ltd., London.)

According to your premise regarding the status of θεόν within the Greek language each of these texts will be referring to "Jehovah alone"; are you willing to concede to this as being the case – even this reference to the Delphian god?

Certainly, this is where the logic of your argument leads – whenever, θεὸν is used in any form of communication it must always then refer to "Jehovah alone". 

Following from this, should it be written, He worshiped God, God is the object of the verb worshiped – and in Greek, God would be the accusative θεόν. Normally the identity of that particular God having received worship will be determined by the surrounding written context. But, not so in your premise – it has became exclusive and reserved for only "Jehovah alone". 

However, it is crystal clear that Greek grammar, itself, does not agree, nor provide support for your theory asserted in this statement, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.".

Certainly, you don't get this from JW.org as there is no use of either superlative, or superlative title, found anywhere on the website. Not even the 1977 article regarding God as a title mentions θεόν.

I have to ask you, which Greek grammar, or lexicon, makes the above claim that θεόν only ever refers to Jehovah; and, that it is a superlative title given to no one but Jehovah alone?    

In the end, θεόν can equally be used with reference to Caesar, Zeus, Artemis, Paul, YHWH, etc.; which, is exactly what you stated for θεός in the following – "The second Greek title θεός (theos) can apply to God, a god, or gods and is shared with many." – and that statement ought to include, and be applied, to θεόν.

Logos Bible Study search in SBLGNT (with corresponding search results in LEB) for lemma.g:θεός@NA found θεὸν (accusative noun spelling of θεός) in 144 verses:

What did Jesus call Himself when describing His relationship with our spiritual adversary ?

Why did our spiritual adversary go away after Jesus said: Go away ?

θεὸν search results also include John 14:1 command for followers of יהוה Salvation (Jesus) to Be Believing in Jesus the same as Be Believing in τὸν θεόν (The God):

πιστεύετε εἰς τὸν θεόν, καὶ εἰς ἐμὲ πιστεύετε (John 14:1 Greek spoken by יהוה Salvation)

Be Ye Believing in The אלהים God, also in Me Be Ye Believing (Ye is olde English plural spelling of You)

Logos Bible Study search in SBLGNT (with corresponding search results in LEB) for lemma.g:θεός@NN found θεός (nominative noun spelling of θεός) in 290 verses that includes Thomas answering Jesus:

What had Thomas touched so he changed from grieving to believing My Lord and My God ?

John 20:24-30 LEB (with Hebrew words usually translated by Jewish scholars in LXX: יהוה as Lord & אלהים as God) =>

Thankful for Blessing of my faith believing Jesus is My יהוה Lord and my אלהים God! (who intimately shares Holy יהוה name with The Father in One plural unique אלהים God)

Keep Smiling 😊

This is a carry over from your first post's premise for "The first title is θεόν" and "The second Greek title θεός"; where, regarding θεόν, you confuse the Greek case system as denoting a separate title and definition apart from θεός. 

I have to ask you – do you personally do this for all the inflected forms of all lexemes within Greek?  

θεός and θεόν are both God, or god, having no difference in lexical definition; on the other hand, the difference in grammar is that the nominative is most generally the subject, and the accusative is most generally an object. Just as the breakdown for the NT use of θεόν showed in my previous post.

Lexically, θεός is the root from which all cognates are derived; θεός, the nominative, is also the lexeme from which we get the accusative (θεόν), genitive (θεοῦ), dative (θεῷ), and vocative (θεέ) forms of that word.

Inflections are used in Greek language to inform the reader, or listener, as to what function each word is performing within a sentence. This is necessary in the Greek language because word order can be all over the place unlike English having a subject verb object structure of order. 

In effect, what the above statement, "Jesus is never called [θεὸν]", communicates is simply the following – Jesus, though referred to as θεός, is not even once (called) i.e. referenced by the prepositional, or direct, object (θεόν) in a sentence anywhere in scripture.

And to that, I say, so what. It is simply grammatical data that has in this instance no theological importance attached to it as you wish to suggest. I hope you understand. 

Since previous questions to you in my posts have went unanswered regarding your stated premise on θεόν being a title in the superlative for Jehovah alone; it can only be assumed that you are still ever inclined to continue on with that premise as stated in your original post, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.".

The above premise is something I most certainly disagree with; and that disagreement is based on Greek grammar and lexical evidence for θεός from which the accusative function is to primarily mark an object – all of which was laid out at length in my previous posts. 

What I believe we can agree on is that we fully disagree as to the function of the accusative form within Greek language along with your attempt to turn the accusative into its own lexeme.

Your premise which wishes to make θεός and θεόν into two different lexemes having completely different dictionary meaning from each other doesn't find support within this language.

And from that, I have to ask, what dictionary definition do you then supply to each of the following forms, θεοῦ, θεῷ, and θεέ?

But, you have insisted in your writing that θεόν in the Greek language is reserved and exclusive to Jehovah alone – which is incorrect. θεόν carries the same definition as θεός simply as you have stated "θεός (theos) can apply to God, a god, or gods and is shared with many.".      

And by the way, I'm still interested in that Greek grammar or lexicon entry which states θεόν is this superlative title reserved and exclusive to Jehovah alone. Do you have that? 

Additionally, as presented, your premise is universal in scope without restriction; do you then concede that θεόν in Greek literature will be referring to Jehovah alone. Specifically curious about that Delphian god reference from Herodotus provided now two posts ago.

As for the above, "I think we can agree that Jesus is not the same as (θεόν)" – do you mean grammar-wise Jesus is not a prepositional object in three of the four texts mentioned and not a direct object in the fourth text?

Or, is it to imply a comparative difference in dictionary definition between θεός and θεόν from the two texts Jn. 1:1, 1:18? If that is the case then you are continuing to ignore Greek grammar, and lexical information, completely.

Or, yet another possibility is to suggest only that a distinction, or differentiation, in person between Jesus and God is in view.

Overall, based upon your premise and the lack of response acknowledging my critique, and concerns with that premise, leads me to say the following. 

While both God the Father and Jesus are in view in each of those four texts you cited Jn. 1:1, 1:18, 17:3, 20:17; this, itself, provides no lexical support for θεόν being its own lexeme separate from θεός as your premise demands it to be.

Moreover, and contrary to your θεόν position, is JW.org recognizing, and explaining, "the Greek word the·osʹ occurs three times in verses 1 and 2." when speaking on Jn. 1:1-2 where the first and third occurrences are in the accusative.

And, they also state, "In the original-language text, the two occurrences of “God” (Greek, the·osʹ) at John 1:1 are grammatically different.", the difference they speak of is with the article i.e., one being anarthrous.

I have, as yet, to find any article on JW.org stating that θεόν is, itself, a title, superlative title, only for Jehovah alone, or that it is an entirely different lexeme having a separate dictionary definition from θεός.

It is rather clear from this that the Watch Tower doesn't share in your vision, or version, of Greek grammar regarding θεόν. Why is that?

My comment on the above will be; θεόν lexically is defined by the lexeme θεός, and θεόν grammatically is the accusative form of the lexeme θεός. The dictionary definition for θεός is the same definition applied to its inflected forms.

A good part of this issue seems to reside in your belief that θεόν is a designated title for Jehovah alone and θεός is not. I would say this is due to taking θεόν as its own word entity almost completely severed from the lexeme it is from, θεός; and, imposing your own theological supposition upon it contrary to what lexicon and grammar will allow for. 

It does seem to me that there is an overall misunderstanding for the purpose of inflected forms within the Greek language.

• "Inflection is the change in the form of nouns, pronouns, and verbs which indicates their relation to other words in the sentence. Declension is the inflection of substantives, adjectives (including participles), and pronouns; conjugation is the inflection of verbs." (Smyth, H. W. (1920). A Greek Grammar for Colleges (p. 44). American Book Company.) 

I disagree that this statement provides any support at all for your premise based on the following.

θεός in direct address (vocative) occurs seven times in the NT (Mt. 27:46; Mk. 15:34; Lk. 18:11, 13; Jn. 20:28; He. 1:8; Re. 4:11). 

In six of these seven occurrences God is being addressed, with two of those texts having Jesus address his own Father. Yet, not a single one of these texts employs the accusative θεόν – just as in Jn. 20:28. 

This data itself entirely negates the validity of the assertion that Thomas' direct address can be used in support for your premise.

Perhaps these definitions below will aid in understanding the general function of the accusative case.

• "accusative. adj. or n. The case that usually marks a noun, pronoun or other substantive as the object of the verbal action, i.e., functioning as the direct object." (DeMoss, M. S. (2001). Pocket dictionary for the study of New Testament Greek (p. 14). InterVarsity Press.)
• "object. n. A substantive that either receives the action of a verb or participle, or is governed by a preposition." (DeMoss, M. S. (2001). Pocket dictionary for the study of New Testament Greek (p. 89). InterVarsity Press.)

I'll repeat myself, as the point concerning Thomas' direct address is not that he used θεόν, he didn't; the point is that no direct address (vocative) to God in the NT uses the accusative form – if it did, it would no longer be a direct address (vocative). Additionally, and stated previously, two of those seven occurrences (Mt. 27:46; Mk. 15:34; Lk. 18:11, 13; Jn. 20:28; He. 1:8; Re. 4:11) are Jesus himself addressing his own Father as θεέ and θεός.

This argument is based first on grammar for the accusative and second that it is shown in the NT itself that the accusative occurs nowhere in a (vocative) NT direct address to God. The result being, that there is absolutely zero support, or credibility, to be given to your premise from the using of Jn. 20:28 as a θεόν proof text.

The following response, "Read very S-L-O-W-L-Y The second Greek title θεός (theos) can apply to God, a god, or gods and is shared with many.", is itself meaningless as your premise is focused solely on θεόν being the "superlative title for Jehovah alone" along with Jn. 20:28 as always being a staple text of your argument for proving this assertion of yours. That can no longer be if you accept Greek grammar and NT witness.  

You make this universal assertion having no exception; and yet, you ignore Greek literary use of the accusative.

Herodotus Histories 1.19.2:

   to question the god about his sickness.

   πέμψαντα τὸν θεὸν ἐπειρέσθαι περὶ τῆς νούσου.

Herodotus Histories 1.50.1:

   the Delphian god with great sacrifices.

   μεγάλῃσι τὸν ἐν Δελφοῖσι θεὸν ἱλάσκετο

And:

   win the aid of the god

   ἐλπίζων τὸν θεὸν

(Herodotus. (1920). Herodotus, with an English translation by A. D. Godley. Harvard University Press.)

Plato's Republic 379c:

   and not in God.

   ἀλλʼ ουʼ τὸν θεόν

(Plato. (1969). Plato in Twelve Volumes & 6 translated by Paul Shorey (Vol. 5). Cambridge, MA, Harvard University Press; London, William Heinemann Ltd.)

Apology of Socrates 13:

   in regard to God’s foreknowledge

   προειδέναι γε τὸν θεὸν

(Xenophon. (1979). Xenophon in Seven Volumes, 4. Harvard University Press, Cambridge, MA; William Heinemann, Ltd., London.)

These few examples were pointed out to you in a prior post – and many more are available within Greek writings. And, as pointed out at that time, these according to your asserted claim will always have to refer to only Jehovah alone.   

Did you ever concede to that?

1). Cite an example of this anarthrous feminine gender θεός found in scripture.

2). Please cite the Greek grammar you find the above stated in.

3). In opposition to the above claim are the following twenty-three texts in total having this anarthrous θεός – masculine gender.

Mk. 12:27; Lk. 20:38; Jn. 1:1, 18, 8:54; Ro. 8:33, 9:5; 1 Cor. 8:4, 6; 2 Cor. 1:3, 21, 5:5, 19, 6:16; Gal. 6:7; Eph. 4:6; Phil. 2:13; 1 Th. 2:5; 2 Th. 2:4; 1 Tim. 2:5; He. 3:4; Rev. 21:3, 7.    

4). And in opposition to this other claim of yours,"The accusative form of theos is to add a 'definite article'", is again scripture itself of course.

Thirty-two instances of an anarthrous θεόν in the NT are listed below:

Lk 12:21, 20:37; Jn 1:18, 10:33, 20:17; Acts 14:15, 28:6; Ro. 1:21, 4:2, 8:7, 27; 2 Cor. 7:9-11; Gal. 4:8-9; 2 Th. 1:8, 2:4; 1 Tim. 5:5; Titus 1:16; Heb. 6:1, 8:10; 1 Pet. 1:21, 3:5, 21, 4:6, 5:2; 1 John 4:12; 2 John 1:9.

1). Please cite the Greek grammar you find the above "Greek Grammar rule" stated in.

2). Jn. 1:1a, first clause, doesn't have θεός in any form; second and third clause along with Jn. 1:2 have θεός as JW.org states: "the Greek word the·osʹ occurs three times in verses 1 and 2.".

Jn. 20:29 ??? Jn. 20:28 for the grammatical reasons posted in my previous post is not supportive of your τὸν θεὸν position in the least. Not one direct address to God in the NT uses an accusative; so, it isn't expected that Thomas would either – yet this is one text you base your claim on. τὸν θεὸν is not a personal name, nor is it the superlative title you claim it to be; however, it is a grammatical form of its lexeme θεός and carries the same definition as θεός.

Makes for a nice story; but, μου in both instances is considered possessive genitive which best reflects the direct address of "My Lord and my God". Your "You are the Lord of Me and the God of Me!" is much more in the form of a descriptive statement about someone than it is a direct address (compare to these direct address texts: Mt. 27:46; Mk. 15:34; Lk. 18:11, 13; He. 1:8; Re. 4:11).

Please expand Christ to Christ Michael the archangel that truthfully shows JW.org & @Brother Rando interpretation of Christ being Michael the archangel.

Remember JW.org library includes three Bibles that do NOT have "to be Christ" in Mark 1:34 so is JW.org Christ per @Brother Rando ?

Mark 1:34 KJV => 34 And he healed many that were sick of divers diseases, and cast out many devils; and suffered not the devils to speak, because they knew him.

Mark 1:34 ASV => 34 And he healed many that were sick with divers diseases, and cast out many demons; and he suffered not the demons to speak, because they knew him.

Mark 1:34 The Bible in Living English => 34 and he cured many who were ill with various diseases, and expelled many demons, and would not let the demons speak, because they knew him.

One use for accusative case τὸν θεόν is the object of a preposition: e.g. Believing command in John 14:1

πιστεύετε εἰς τὸν θεόν, καὶ εἰς ἐμὲ πιστεύετε (John 14:1 Greek spoken by יהוה Salvation)

Be Ye Believing in The אלהים God, also in Me Be Ye Believing (Ye is olde English plural spelling of You)

Eternal truth is consistent. If God only has one voice (like every created being), then the John 14:1 command is inconsistent (the quality of the spirit inside the man Jesus could NOT have been fully God). If Hebrew plural spelling of אלהים God truthfully reflects One God Spirit consists of three simulteneous voices, then John 14:1 command is consistent: believing in Jesus Christ is truly the same as believing in One plural unique Holy יהוה Lord אלהים God.

True Christians believe & worship Jesus Christ as Holy יהוה Lord, who is one voice in One plural unique Holy יהוה Lord אלהים God.

Keep Smiling 😊

Please expand Christ to Christ Michael the archangel that truthfully shows JW.org & @Brother Rando interpretation of Christ being Michael the archangel.

Remember @Pages posted five Greek τὸν θεόν examples on August 13 that disprove @Brother Rando alone assertion. Also θεόν in Acts 28:6 referred to the Apostle Paul and 2 Thessalonians 2:4 θεόν for "every so-called god"

What did יהוה declare in Jeremiah 23:5-6 about יהוה name sharing ?

 Jeremiah 23:5-6 LEB => “Look, days are coming,” declares יהוה Yahweh, “when I will raise up for David a righteous branch, and he will reign as king, and he will achieve success, and he will do justice and righteousness in the land. In his days Judah will be saved, and Israel will dwell in safety, and this is his name by which he will be called: ‘יהוה Yahweh is our righteousness.’

Hebrew noun (construct spelling => of) for righteousness צדקנו has pronoun, suffixed, 1st person, plural whose literal translation options are: 'יהוה Yahweh of Righteousness We' OR 'יהוה Yahweh of Righteousness Our' OR 'יהוה Yahweh of Righteousness Us'

Deuteronomy 6:4 has six Hebrew words. The only verb is the first word.

Deuteronomy 6:4 unpointed Hebrew => שמע ישראל יהוה אלהינו יהוה אחד

Deuteronomy 6:4 pointed Hebrew => שְׁמַ֖ע יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל יְהוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ יְהוָ֥ה אֶחָֽד

sh'-MA = שְׁמַ֖ע : Hear & Obey - verb, Qal, imperative, 2nd person, Masculine (Imperative kind of action = Command)

yis-ra-AYL = יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל : Israel - noun, proper, singular, absolute

a-do-NAI = יהוה : YHVH - noun, proper, masculine, singular, absolute (a-do-NAI is the Hebrew word Lord)

e-lo-HAY-nu = אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ : of plural God We/Our/Us - noun, common, masculine, plural, with pronoun suffixed, 1st person

a-do-NAI = יהוה : YHVH - noun, proper, masculine, singular, absolute (a-do-NAI is the Hebrew word Lord)

e-KHAD = אֶחָֽד : one/only - numeral, cardinal, singular, absolute

Israel365 Bible has Hebrew transliteration showing emphasized syllable for pronounciation (with Jewish spoken substitute for יהוה)

Human genitive perspective for suffixed 1st person plural pronoun is in @Brother Rando quote (with word order showing untrustworthy Watchtower Society belief) and Deuteronomy 6:4 LEB => Hear, Israel, Yahweh our God, Yahweh is unique.

My literal translation options reflecting יהוה perspective of plural God => " Hear&Obey Israel יהוה of-God-We יהוה alone " OR " Hear&Obey Israel יהוה of-God-Us יהוה only "

What is plural We/Our/Us in One unique Holy יהוה Lord אלהים God ?

We agree.

Keep Smiling 😊

@Brother Rando

According to the following assertion made by @Bro Rando in this thread, θεόν refers only and alone to Jehovah. "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone." (emphasis mine)

Many times throughout this thread it was repeatedly pointed out that θεόν is just θεός in the accusative form. An inflection of a word simply lets one know what grammatical function it is performing within a phrase, clause, or sentence. This is necessary due to Greek word order being all over the place; in other words, the language does not follow, as in English, a structured subject, verb, object formation. The primary function of the accusative is to denote an object of a preposition or an object of a verb; which is detailed here regarding the 148 uses of θεόν in the NT.

An inflection is not to be taken as a signal for a word being either a name or title as has been asserted – that is not its linguistic purpose; nor, does the inflected θεόν carry a different lexical meaning or sense from its lexeme θεός. 

Additionally, it was also pointed out that θεόν is used in scripture for both Artemis (Acts 19:37) and also Paul (Acts 28:6); and, also equally important, the usage of θεόν within Greek literature – apparently overlooked in that assertion.

In contrast to the asserted statement regarding θεόν as given by @Bro Rando there is every reason, both grammatical and lexical, to consider it, as stated and in application, as complete error.

The reason for posting again on this topic has to do with a phrase I just recently came across in research on another topic. 

The previous posts in this thread have dealt with the grammatical and lexical nature of θεόν as summarized above and are the basis for rejection of that premise. However, for the sake of argument, I now will argue for that same assertion as being correct using this one particular phrase.

If we were to allow that this premise, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", is in fact a true statement; then I believe the following phrase ought to be considered in light of that standard. The phrase I'm speaking of is θεὸν λόγον.

θεὸν λόγον is used in this following manner and occurs more times than I will document in this post.

The first, is from Arius:

"We believe in one God, the Father, almighty; And in the Lord Jesus Christ, His Son, the God-Logos Who was begotten from Him before all the ages, through Whom all things came into being, things in heaven and things on earth, Who came down and took flesh and suffered and rose again, ascended to heaven, and will come again to judge living and dead"

"Καὶ εἰς κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν, τὸν υἱὸν αὐτοῦ, τὸν ἐξ αὐτοῦ πρὸ πάντων τῶν αἰώνων γεγεννημένον θεὸν λόγον, διʼ οὗ τὰ πάντα ἐγένετο, τά τε ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς καὶ τὰ ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, τὸν κατελθόντα καὶ σαρκωθέντα καὶ παθόντα καὶ ἀναστάντα, ἀνελθόντα εἰς τοὺς οὐρανούς, καὶ πάλιν ἐρχόμενον κρῖναι ζῶντας καὶ νεκρούς." 

(Kelly, J. N. D. (2006). Early Christian Creeds (Third Edition, p. 189). Continuum.)

The same phrase within Chalcedon:

"but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ"

"ἀλλʼ ἕνα καὶ τὸν αὐτὸν υἱὸν καὶ μονογενῆ, θεὸν λόγον, κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χοιστόν"  

(Schaff, P. (1890). The Creeds of Christendom, with a History and Critical Notes: The Greek and Latin Creeds, with Translations (Vol. 2, pp. 62–63). Harper & Brothers.)

From Athanasius' On the Incarnation:

10:3

"Then He also points out the reason why it was necessary for none other than God the Word Himself to become incarnate; as follows:"

“Εἶτα καὶ τὴν αἰτίαν τοῦ μὴ ἄλλον δεῖν ἢ αὐτὸν τὸν Θεὸν Λόγον ἐνανθρωπῆσαι σημαίνει λέγων·” 

12:1

“For whereas the grace of the Divine Image was in itself sufficient to make known God the Word, and through Him the Father;"

Αὐτάρκης μὲν γὰρ ἦν ἡ κατ’ εἰκόνα χάρις γνωρίζειν τὸν Θεὸν Λόγον, καὶ δι’ αὐτοῦ τὸν Πατέρα·

(Athanasius of Alexandria. (1892). On the Incarnation of the Word. In P. Schaff & H. Wace (Eds.), & A. T. Robertson (Trans.), St. Athanasius: Select Works and Letters (Vol. 4, p. 41, 42). Christian Literature Company.) 

Having now presented documented examples of θεὸν being used with Jesus as the referent; which, according to @Bro Rando's stated claim and standard, "But θεόν (theon) refers to only to the True God as in (John 17:3). θεόν (theon) is a superlative title given to Jehovah alone.", can mean only that Jesus is Jehovah. (emphasis mine)

He cannot sustain his assertion on any solid ground. On the one hand, it is futile endeavor against Greek grammar, lexical, and literature witnesses; on the other hand, he proves that Artemis, Paul, Jesus, and every Greek god who are referents of θεόν are all Jehovah(s).