How does "word" become "flesh" ? (John 1:14)

[Deleted User]

John 1:14 (NASB 95)

And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us ...

This statement begs the question, How does word become flesh? How can this expression be understood most coherently with other scriptures, in particular with 1Pe 1:20?

1 Peter 1:20 (KJV)

20 Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you

C Mc

https://www.christiandiscourse.net/discussion/948/how-does-word-become-flesh-john-1-14

Wolfgang,

The simple answer: By becoming human, God showed His commitment to restoring the broken relationship between Himself and humanity (1 Peter 1:20; Rev. 13:8). Through the process of the Incarnation.

God willingly humbled Himself and became human:

“Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that by his death he might destroy him who holds the power of death. . . . For this reason he had to be made like his brothers in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people” (Heb. 2:14–17). 

Christ embraced humanity completely. Apart from enabling Him to provide atonement for humanity, His identification with humanity allowed the triune God to take up “our infirmities” and carry “our diseases” (Matt. 8:17). Therefore, Christ is able to sympathize with the struggles of “estranged and dysfunctional humanity.” Hebrews 4:15 is the best-known text that expresses this thought: “For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses.”

In Mark 10:43-45, Jesus clearly pointed to Himself as an example of godly leadership in talking with His disciples:

“‘Not so with you. Instead,...whoever wants to be first must be slave of all. For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many.’”

How the "Word" become "flesh"? In short:

• Christ should take upon Himself the form and nature of fallen man.
• The Son of God consented to take on humanity, to become one with the fallen race.
• Jesus, the Son of God, came down to the level of those he wished to save.
• In Christ was no "guile" or sinfulness. He was ever pure and undefiled; yet he took upon him our sinful nature.

SOURCES:

• Donald L. Alexander, The Humanity of Christ and the Healing of the Dysfunction of the Human Spirit (Eugene, Ore.: Wipf and Stock, 2015), 95.
• Alexander Balmain Bruce, The Humiliation of Christ in Its Physical, Ethical, and Official Aspects (Grand Rapids, Mich.: Eerdmans, 1955), 253.

[Deleted User]

@C Mc ...do you not realize that your theological explanations start out from an unbiblical premise ? That is, you talk about a living being / person -- God, Christ -- becoming human ... and thus you missed the simple question, which had nothing whatever to do living beings changing one form of existence into becoming another form of existence.

Simple question was and is: How can what is and exists as "word" become "flesh" ?? Or asked in more general terms, how can what is and exists as "word" become something else??

PS. You can leave theologians' ideas and quotations where they are ... as they are not needed and most likely not helpful for a simple answer

C Mc

The plan made for the Son of God (Jesus) to come to earth in human form is clear for all to see.

“Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you.”

Note:

• "Before the foundation of the world" -- pre-existence.
• Jesus the world’s Redeemer -- humility.

Therefore, Christ may be regarded as "The Lamb slain from the foundation of the world." So the decision was reached before the world began, confirmed at the cross of Calvary. CM