1. How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was the year for the selection to heaven stopped due to being filled? What is the difference between a Catholic appealing to "what the organization tells him " about December 25 being the date of Jesus' birthday and a JW appealing to "what the organization tells him" about 1935? Is it not hypocritical when you scold the "poor deluded Catholic" that his faith cannot find a Bible passage to support it when the same goes for you and 1935?

2. In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" is used about God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, John 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used about Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Matt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in Greek (see Greek-English Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan" used about God in Rev. 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to Christ in Matt. 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship," how would the verses above referring to Christ read? 

3. The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Matt. 3:3, Lk 2:9, John 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom. 12:19, Col 1:10, 1 Thess. 5:2, 1 Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom. 10:9, 1 Cor. 12:3, Phil. 2:11, 2 Thess. 2:1, and Rev. 22:21 (see Greek-English Interlinear)? 

4. The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" as "I am" every time it appears (John 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in John 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been." What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated in John 8:58, the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears, how would John 8:58 read? 

5. The NWT translates John 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god". How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god" if God says in Deut. 32:39, "See now that I-I am he, and there are NO gods together WITH me ..."? 

6. Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today." Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read? 

7. The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as "is" in almost every instance in the New Testament (Matt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate this Greek word as "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti"? What would these verses say if the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses? 

8. In Phil. 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other," even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek (see Greek-English Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this word? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa. 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov. 30:5-6. 

9. In Col 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word "other" 4 times even though it is not in the original Greek (see Greek-English interlinear). Why is the word "other" inserted? How would these verses read if the word "other" had not been inserted? 

10. In 2 Pet 1:1, the NWT inserts the word "the." Why is it inserted? How would the verse read if the word "the" was not inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? (See Prov 30:5-6). 

11. In Lk 4:12, the NWT translates "kyrios" (Greek-lord) as "Jehovah," which makes the verse read "... 'You shall not put Jehovah your God to the test.'" See Greek-English Interlinear. Why is kyrios translated as "Jehovah" in this verse? Was the devil, in Lk 4:9-11, putting Jehovah to the test or JESUS to the test? 

Most of the questions are centered or from the New World Translation Bible. I and others want to know. Please take them seriously. I remain.